Why do the (nonzero) vectors $x,y, x-y$ form a triangle? (can assume $mathbbR^2$)

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Let $x,y$ be any two nonzero vectors in $mathbbR^2$ that are not scalar multiplies of eachother (i.e. are not linearly dependent), and $x-y$ be their difference.



I am wondering why these three vectors, $x,y,x-y$, always form a triangle (subject to repositioning).



I get that it is likely just from the definition of the difference between two vectors, but I don't see how it follows from the definition



I am looking more for a formal proof than intuition.



Edit: By "Form a triangle" I mean that if you draw $x$ and $y$ as starting at the same point, and draw $x-y$ as starting at the tip of $y$, the resulting picture will be a triangle.



For an example see the third picture here



I.e., why is the length of $x-y$ sufficient so that $x-y$, when placed at the tip of $y$, goes from the tip of $x$ to the tip of $y$ (when $x$ and $y$ originate at the same point). How do we know (formally) that there is no "gap"?










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  • Which three vectors? Aren't they all colinear (or $bf0$)?
    – David G. Stork
    Aug 31 at 0:40











  • @DavidG.Stork Edited to make more clear
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • What if $x=y=0$?
    – amsmath
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • @amsmath Assume they are all nonzero. and that they are not parallel
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:42











  • What do you get when you add $x-y$ to $y$? What does this look like when you place these vectors head-to-tail?
    – amd
    Aug 31 at 0:58














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $x,y$ be any two nonzero vectors in $mathbbR^2$ that are not scalar multiplies of eachother (i.e. are not linearly dependent), and $x-y$ be their difference.



I am wondering why these three vectors, $x,y,x-y$, always form a triangle (subject to repositioning).



I get that it is likely just from the definition of the difference between two vectors, but I don't see how it follows from the definition



I am looking more for a formal proof than intuition.



Edit: By "Form a triangle" I mean that if you draw $x$ and $y$ as starting at the same point, and draw $x-y$ as starting at the tip of $y$, the resulting picture will be a triangle.



For an example see the third picture here



I.e., why is the length of $x-y$ sufficient so that $x-y$, when placed at the tip of $y$, goes from the tip of $x$ to the tip of $y$ (when $x$ and $y$ originate at the same point). How do we know (formally) that there is no "gap"?










share|cite|improve this question























  • Which three vectors? Aren't they all colinear (or $bf0$)?
    – David G. Stork
    Aug 31 at 0:40











  • @DavidG.Stork Edited to make more clear
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • What if $x=y=0$?
    – amsmath
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • @amsmath Assume they are all nonzero. and that they are not parallel
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:42











  • What do you get when you add $x-y$ to $y$? What does this look like when you place these vectors head-to-tail?
    – amd
    Aug 31 at 0:58












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $x,y$ be any two nonzero vectors in $mathbbR^2$ that are not scalar multiplies of eachother (i.e. are not linearly dependent), and $x-y$ be their difference.



I am wondering why these three vectors, $x,y,x-y$, always form a triangle (subject to repositioning).



I get that it is likely just from the definition of the difference between two vectors, but I don't see how it follows from the definition



I am looking more for a formal proof than intuition.



Edit: By "Form a triangle" I mean that if you draw $x$ and $y$ as starting at the same point, and draw $x-y$ as starting at the tip of $y$, the resulting picture will be a triangle.



For an example see the third picture here



I.e., why is the length of $x-y$ sufficient so that $x-y$, when placed at the tip of $y$, goes from the tip of $x$ to the tip of $y$ (when $x$ and $y$ originate at the same point). How do we know (formally) that there is no "gap"?










share|cite|improve this question















Let $x,y$ be any two nonzero vectors in $mathbbR^2$ that are not scalar multiplies of eachother (i.e. are not linearly dependent), and $x-y$ be their difference.



I am wondering why these three vectors, $x,y,x-y$, always form a triangle (subject to repositioning).



I get that it is likely just from the definition of the difference between two vectors, but I don't see how it follows from the definition



I am looking more for a formal proof than intuition.



Edit: By "Form a triangle" I mean that if you draw $x$ and $y$ as starting at the same point, and draw $x-y$ as starting at the tip of $y$, the resulting picture will be a triangle.



For an example see the third picture here



I.e., why is the length of $x-y$ sufficient so that $x-y$, when placed at the tip of $y$, goes from the tip of $x$ to the tip of $y$ (when $x$ and $y$ originate at the same point). How do we know (formally) that there is no "gap"?







vectors visualization






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edited Aug 31 at 0:51

























asked Aug 31 at 0:39









user106860

302114




302114











  • Which three vectors? Aren't they all colinear (or $bf0$)?
    – David G. Stork
    Aug 31 at 0:40











  • @DavidG.Stork Edited to make more clear
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • What if $x=y=0$?
    – amsmath
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • @amsmath Assume they are all nonzero. and that they are not parallel
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:42











  • What do you get when you add $x-y$ to $y$? What does this look like when you place these vectors head-to-tail?
    – amd
    Aug 31 at 0:58
















  • Which three vectors? Aren't they all colinear (or $bf0$)?
    – David G. Stork
    Aug 31 at 0:40











  • @DavidG.Stork Edited to make more clear
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • What if $x=y=0$?
    – amsmath
    Aug 31 at 0:41










  • @amsmath Assume they are all nonzero. and that they are not parallel
    – user106860
    Aug 31 at 0:42











  • What do you get when you add $x-y$ to $y$? What does this look like when you place these vectors head-to-tail?
    – amd
    Aug 31 at 0:58















Which three vectors? Aren't they all colinear (or $bf0$)?
– David G. Stork
Aug 31 at 0:40





Which three vectors? Aren't they all colinear (or $bf0$)?
– David G. Stork
Aug 31 at 0:40













@DavidG.Stork Edited to make more clear
– user106860
Aug 31 at 0:41




@DavidG.Stork Edited to make more clear
– user106860
Aug 31 at 0:41












What if $x=y=0$?
– amsmath
Aug 31 at 0:41




What if $x=y=0$?
– amsmath
Aug 31 at 0:41












@amsmath Assume they are all nonzero. and that they are not parallel
– user106860
Aug 31 at 0:42





@amsmath Assume they are all nonzero. and that they are not parallel
– user106860
Aug 31 at 0:42













What do you get when you add $x-y$ to $y$? What does this look like when you place these vectors head-to-tail?
– amd
Aug 31 at 0:58




What do you get when you add $x-y$ to $y$? What does this look like when you place these vectors head-to-tail?
– amd
Aug 31 at 0:58










3 Answers
3






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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










In order for three linearly independent vectors $A,B,C $to form a triangle we need to have $A+B+C=0$



Thus $A,B,-A-B$ form a triangle if $A$ and $B$ are independent.



The result could be easily generalized to a polygon.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    If you put the vector $x-y$ at the end of $y$ the resulting displacement is $y+(x-y)=x$ This is why they form a triangle.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • ??? Of course they form a triangle...
      – amsmath
      Aug 31 at 0:46










    • If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
      – user106860
      Aug 31 at 0:47










    • @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
      – amsmath
      Aug 31 at 0:49











    • I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
      – JessicaK
      Aug 31 at 0:52











    • @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
      – amsmath
      Aug 31 at 0:54


















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Sometimes it takes a picture:



    enter image description here



    By the paralellogram rule for vector addition, $overrightarrowOD$ is $x-y$. It should be clear that $triangleAOB cong triangleOAD$ and that $AB parallel OD$ so $x-y$ indeed “fills the gap.”






    share|cite|improve this answer






















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      In order for three linearly independent vectors $A,B,C $to form a triangle we need to have $A+B+C=0$



      Thus $A,B,-A-B$ form a triangle if $A$ and $B$ are independent.



      The result could be easily generalized to a polygon.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted










        In order for three linearly independent vectors $A,B,C $to form a triangle we need to have $A+B+C=0$



        Thus $A,B,-A-B$ form a triangle if $A$ and $B$ are independent.



        The result could be easily generalized to a polygon.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          In order for three linearly independent vectors $A,B,C $to form a triangle we need to have $A+B+C=0$



          Thus $A,B,-A-B$ form a triangle if $A$ and $B$ are independent.



          The result could be easily generalized to a polygon.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          In order for three linearly independent vectors $A,B,C $to form a triangle we need to have $A+B+C=0$



          Thus $A,B,-A-B$ form a triangle if $A$ and $B$ are independent.



          The result could be easily generalized to a polygon.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 31 at 13:18

























          answered Aug 31 at 0:58









          Mohammad Riazi-Kermani

          31.1k41853




          31.1k41853




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              If you put the vector $x-y$ at the end of $y$ the resulting displacement is $y+(x-y)=x$ This is why they form a triangle.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • ??? Of course they form a triangle...
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:46










              • If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
                – user106860
                Aug 31 at 0:47










              • @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:49











              • I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
                – JessicaK
                Aug 31 at 0:52











              • @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:54















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              If you put the vector $x-y$ at the end of $y$ the resulting displacement is $y+(x-y)=x$ This is why they form a triangle.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • ??? Of course they form a triangle...
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:46










              • If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
                – user106860
                Aug 31 at 0:47










              • @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:49











              • I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
                – JessicaK
                Aug 31 at 0:52











              • @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:54













              up vote
              1
              down vote










              up vote
              1
              down vote









              If you put the vector $x-y$ at the end of $y$ the resulting displacement is $y+(x-y)=x$ This is why they form a triangle.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              If you put the vector $x-y$ at the end of $y$ the resulting displacement is $y+(x-y)=x$ This is why they form a triangle.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Aug 31 at 1:08

























              answered Aug 31 at 0:44









              Ross Millikan

              279k23189355




              279k23189355











              • ??? Of course they form a triangle...
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:46










              • If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
                – user106860
                Aug 31 at 0:47










              • @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:49











              • I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
                – JessicaK
                Aug 31 at 0:52











              • @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:54

















              • ??? Of course they form a triangle...
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:46










              • If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
                – user106860
                Aug 31 at 0:47










              • @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:49











              • I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
                – JessicaK
                Aug 31 at 0:52











              • @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
                – amsmath
                Aug 31 at 0:54
















              ??? Of course they form a triangle...
              – amsmath
              Aug 31 at 0:46




              ??? Of course they form a triangle...
              – amsmath
              Aug 31 at 0:46












              If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
              – user106860
              Aug 31 at 0:47




              If you reposition $x-y$ so that it begins at the tip of $y$ then they would form a triangle
              – user106860
              Aug 31 at 0:47












              @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
              – amsmath
              Aug 31 at 0:49





              @user106860 Maybe you should define what you mean by "form a triangle". I understand it as "the points form a triangle". Then in the example above no repositioning is needed. They form a triangle.
              – amsmath
              Aug 31 at 0:49













              I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
              – JessicaK
              Aug 31 at 0:52





              I think the phrasing of the question means to treat each vector as a line segment from the origin and then do a translation of the line segment represented by $x-y$ such that the three line segments form the edges of a triangle.
              – JessicaK
              Aug 31 at 0:52













              @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
              – amsmath
              Aug 31 at 0:54





              @JessicaK Yes, OP edited his question accordingly.
              – amsmath
              Aug 31 at 0:54











              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Sometimes it takes a picture:



              enter image description here



              By the paralellogram rule for vector addition, $overrightarrowOD$ is $x-y$. It should be clear that $triangleAOB cong triangleOAD$ and that $AB parallel OD$ so $x-y$ indeed “fills the gap.”






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                Sometimes it takes a picture:



                enter image description here



                By the paralellogram rule for vector addition, $overrightarrowOD$ is $x-y$. It should be clear that $triangleAOB cong triangleOAD$ and that $AB parallel OD$ so $x-y$ indeed “fills the gap.”






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  Sometimes it takes a picture:



                  enter image description here



                  By the paralellogram rule for vector addition, $overrightarrowOD$ is $x-y$. It should be clear that $triangleAOB cong triangleOAD$ and that $AB parallel OD$ so $x-y$ indeed “fills the gap.”






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Sometimes it takes a picture:



                  enter image description here



                  By the paralellogram rule for vector addition, $overrightarrowOD$ is $x-y$. It should be clear that $triangleAOB cong triangleOAD$ and that $AB parallel OD$ so $x-y$ indeed “fills the gap.”







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 31 at 23:16

























                  answered Aug 31 at 2:07









                  amd

                  26.8k21046




                  26.8k21046



























                       

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