Prove that the function $f$ is identically zero by the given condition.

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Let $f$ be a continuous function on $mathbb R$ such that $f(x)=0$ for $|x|>1$. Suppose $int_-1^1 f(x-t) dx =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. Show that $f$ is identically equal to zero.



I have tried to solve it but I fail.Would anyone please give some hint to proceed.



Thank you in advance.










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  • 2




    Hint Differentiate w.r.t. $t$.
    – Travis
    Jun 9 '17 at 16:56










  • By differentiating do we get $f(1-t)=f(-1-t)$ for all $t in mathbb R$?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:05










  • Then $f(1)=f(3)=0$ and hence $f(-1)=f(1)=0$. .Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we take $t=1-c$ and get $f(c)=0$.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:16










  • Differentiting w.r.t $t$ will give $int_-1^1 fracpartialpartial t f(x-t) dx =0$
    – Sahiba Arora
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:40















up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1












Let $f$ be a continuous function on $mathbb R$ such that $f(x)=0$ for $|x|>1$. Suppose $int_-1^1 f(x-t) dx =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. Show that $f$ is identically equal to zero.



I have tried to solve it but I fail.Would anyone please give some hint to proceed.



Thank you in advance.










share|cite|improve this question

















  • 2




    Hint Differentiate w.r.t. $t$.
    – Travis
    Jun 9 '17 at 16:56










  • By differentiating do we get $f(1-t)=f(-1-t)$ for all $t in mathbb R$?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:05










  • Then $f(1)=f(3)=0$ and hence $f(-1)=f(1)=0$. .Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we take $t=1-c$ and get $f(c)=0$.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:16










  • Differentiting w.r.t $t$ will give $int_-1^1 fracpartialpartial t f(x-t) dx =0$
    – Sahiba Arora
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:40













up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $f$ be a continuous function on $mathbb R$ such that $f(x)=0$ for $|x|>1$. Suppose $int_-1^1 f(x-t) dx =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. Show that $f$ is identically equal to zero.



I have tried to solve it but I fail.Would anyone please give some hint to proceed.



Thank you in advance.










share|cite|improve this question













Let $f$ be a continuous function on $mathbb R$ such that $f(x)=0$ for $|x|>1$. Suppose $int_-1^1 f(x-t) dx =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. Show that $f$ is identically equal to zero.



I have tried to solve it but I fail.Would anyone please give some hint to proceed.



Thank you in advance.







real-analysis riemann-integration






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asked Jun 9 '17 at 16:53









Arnab Chatterjee.

1,206318




1,206318







  • 2




    Hint Differentiate w.r.t. $t$.
    – Travis
    Jun 9 '17 at 16:56










  • By differentiating do we get $f(1-t)=f(-1-t)$ for all $t in mathbb R$?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:05










  • Then $f(1)=f(3)=0$ and hence $f(-1)=f(1)=0$. .Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we take $t=1-c$ and get $f(c)=0$.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:16










  • Differentiting w.r.t $t$ will give $int_-1^1 fracpartialpartial t f(x-t) dx =0$
    – Sahiba Arora
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:40













  • 2




    Hint Differentiate w.r.t. $t$.
    – Travis
    Jun 9 '17 at 16:56










  • By differentiating do we get $f(1-t)=f(-1-t)$ for all $t in mathbb R$?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:05










  • Then $f(1)=f(3)=0$ and hence $f(-1)=f(1)=0$. .Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we take $t=1-c$ and get $f(c)=0$.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:16










  • Differentiting w.r.t $t$ will give $int_-1^1 fracpartialpartial t f(x-t) dx =0$
    – Sahiba Arora
    Jun 9 '17 at 17:40








2




2




Hint Differentiate w.r.t. $t$.
– Travis
Jun 9 '17 at 16:56




Hint Differentiate w.r.t. $t$.
– Travis
Jun 9 '17 at 16:56












By differentiating do we get $f(1-t)=f(-1-t)$ for all $t in mathbb R$?
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Jun 9 '17 at 17:05




By differentiating do we get $f(1-t)=f(-1-t)$ for all $t in mathbb R$?
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Jun 9 '17 at 17:05












Then $f(1)=f(3)=0$ and hence $f(-1)=f(1)=0$. .Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we take $t=1-c$ and get $f(c)=0$.
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Jun 9 '17 at 17:16




Then $f(1)=f(3)=0$ and hence $f(-1)=f(1)=0$. .Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we take $t=1-c$ and get $f(c)=0$.
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Jun 9 '17 at 17:16












Differentiting w.r.t $t$ will give $int_-1^1 fracpartialpartial t f(x-t) dx =0$
– Sahiba Arora
Jun 9 '17 at 17:40





Differentiting w.r.t $t$ will give $int_-1^1 fracpartialpartial t f(x-t) dx =0$
– Sahiba Arora
Jun 9 '17 at 17:40











3 Answers
3






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up vote
1
down vote













Just a hint



Put $u=x-t $.
the integral becomes



$$int_-1-t^1-tf (u)du=0$$
if $0 le tle1$ then



$$int_-1^1-tf (u)du=0$$



thus
$$forall vin [0,1] int_-1^vf (u)du=0$$
and by differentiation
$$f (v)=0$$



by the same for $[-1,0] $.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Clearly $f$ is uniformly continuous.



    We have $$int_-1^1f(x-t) dx = 0hspace2cm (1)$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Replacing $t$ by $-t$ we get, $$int_-1^1f(x+t) dx = 0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$.



    This gives $$int_-1^1 f(x+t) -f(t) dx +2f(t) =0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given. Then there exist $delta >0$ such that $|x|<delta implies |f(x-t)-f(x)|<epsilon$



    Choose $delta <1$ if necessary, we get



    $$0<2epsilon + 2f(t)$$
    for all $t in mathbbR$. As $epsilon >0 $ was arbitrary we get $f(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbbR$



    Now putting $t=0$ in $(1)$ we have $int_-1^1 f(x) dx =0$. This gives $$int_mathbbR f(x) dx =0$$ As $f geq 0$, it follows that $f equiv 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote



      accepted










      I cannot restrict myself at last by answering my own question.I have an answer analogous to one of my comments which is as follows $:$



      First of all let us state a well known theorem $:$



      Theorem $:$





      Let $I=[a,b] subset mathbb R$ and let $f : I longrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous on $I$. Let $J=[c,d] subset mathbb R$ and let $u : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $u(J) subset I$; $v : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $v(J) subset I$. If $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ for $t in J$, then $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.





      Now lets proceed to answer my own question with the help of the above theorem.



      It is very easily seen that the integral $int_-1^1 f(x-t)dx$ can be transformed to the integral $int_-1-t^1-t f(x)dx$.Now take $I = [-3,3] subset mathbb R$ and also take $u(t) -1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$, $v(t)=1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$ and $J=[-2,2]$.Then clearly by the given hypothesis $f$ is continuous on $I$; $u(J) subset I$ and $v(J) subset I$.Then by the above theorem the function $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ , $t in J$ is differentiable on $J$ and $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.



      Now after some calculation we have $g'(t) = f(-1-t) - f(1-t)$ for all $t in J$.By the given hypothesis $g(t) = 0$ for all $t in J$.Hence so is $g'(t)$ and consequently $f(-1-t) = f(1-t)$ for all $ t in J$ $-$$-$$-$$-$$-$ $(1)$.



      First put $t=-2 in J$ then we have $f(1)=f(3)=0$ since it is given that $f(x)=0$ for $|x| >1$.Now put $t=0$ then we have $f(-1)=f(1)=0$.Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we have $1-c in (0,2) subset J$ so taking $t=1-c$ we have from $(1)$ $f(c)=f(-2+c)=0$ since $|-2+c|>1$ because $-2+c in (-3,-1)$ for $c in (-1,1)$.This shows that $f(x)=0$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



      Therefore $f(x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb R$.Which proves our claim.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        up vote
        1
        down vote













        Just a hint



        Put $u=x-t $.
        the integral becomes



        $$int_-1-t^1-tf (u)du=0$$
        if $0 le tle1$ then



        $$int_-1^1-tf (u)du=0$$



        thus
        $$forall vin [0,1] int_-1^vf (u)du=0$$
        and by differentiation
        $$f (v)=0$$



        by the same for $[-1,0] $.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Just a hint



          Put $u=x-t $.
          the integral becomes



          $$int_-1-t^1-tf (u)du=0$$
          if $0 le tle1$ then



          $$int_-1^1-tf (u)du=0$$



          thus
          $$forall vin [0,1] int_-1^vf (u)du=0$$
          and by differentiation
          $$f (v)=0$$



          by the same for $[-1,0] $.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Just a hint



            Put $u=x-t $.
            the integral becomes



            $$int_-1-t^1-tf (u)du=0$$
            if $0 le tle1$ then



            $$int_-1^1-tf (u)du=0$$



            thus
            $$forall vin [0,1] int_-1^vf (u)du=0$$
            and by differentiation
            $$f (v)=0$$



            by the same for $[-1,0] $.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Just a hint



            Put $u=x-t $.
            the integral becomes



            $$int_-1-t^1-tf (u)du=0$$
            if $0 le tle1$ then



            $$int_-1^1-tf (u)du=0$$



            thus
            $$forall vin [0,1] int_-1^vf (u)du=0$$
            and by differentiation
            $$f (v)=0$$



            by the same for $[-1,0] $.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jun 9 '17 at 17:55









            Salahamam_ Fatima

            33.9k21230




            33.9k21230




















                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Clearly $f$ is uniformly continuous.



                We have $$int_-1^1f(x-t) dx = 0hspace2cm (1)$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Replacing $t$ by $-t$ we get, $$int_-1^1f(x+t) dx = 0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$.



                This gives $$int_-1^1 f(x+t) -f(t) dx +2f(t) =0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given. Then there exist $delta >0$ such that $|x|<delta implies |f(x-t)-f(x)|<epsilon$



                Choose $delta <1$ if necessary, we get



                $$0<2epsilon + 2f(t)$$
                for all $t in mathbbR$. As $epsilon >0 $ was arbitrary we get $f(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbbR$



                Now putting $t=0$ in $(1)$ we have $int_-1^1 f(x) dx =0$. This gives $$int_mathbbR f(x) dx =0$$ As $f geq 0$, it follows that $f equiv 0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  Clearly $f$ is uniformly continuous.



                  We have $$int_-1^1f(x-t) dx = 0hspace2cm (1)$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Replacing $t$ by $-t$ we get, $$int_-1^1f(x+t) dx = 0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$.



                  This gives $$int_-1^1 f(x+t) -f(t) dx +2f(t) =0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given. Then there exist $delta >0$ such that $|x|<delta implies |f(x-t)-f(x)|<epsilon$



                  Choose $delta <1$ if necessary, we get



                  $$0<2epsilon + 2f(t)$$
                  for all $t in mathbbR$. As $epsilon >0 $ was arbitrary we get $f(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbbR$



                  Now putting $t=0$ in $(1)$ we have $int_-1^1 f(x) dx =0$. This gives $$int_mathbbR f(x) dx =0$$ As $f geq 0$, it follows that $f equiv 0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer






















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    Clearly $f$ is uniformly continuous.



                    We have $$int_-1^1f(x-t) dx = 0hspace2cm (1)$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Replacing $t$ by $-t$ we get, $$int_-1^1f(x+t) dx = 0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$.



                    This gives $$int_-1^1 f(x+t) -f(t) dx +2f(t) =0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given. Then there exist $delta >0$ such that $|x|<delta implies |f(x-t)-f(x)|<epsilon$



                    Choose $delta <1$ if necessary, we get



                    $$0<2epsilon + 2f(t)$$
                    for all $t in mathbbR$. As $epsilon >0 $ was arbitrary we get $f(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbbR$



                    Now putting $t=0$ in $(1)$ we have $int_-1^1 f(x) dx =0$. This gives $$int_mathbbR f(x) dx =0$$ As $f geq 0$, it follows that $f equiv 0$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Clearly $f$ is uniformly continuous.



                    We have $$int_-1^1f(x-t) dx = 0hspace2cm (1)$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Replacing $t$ by $-t$ we get, $$int_-1^1f(x+t) dx = 0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$.



                    This gives $$int_-1^1 f(x+t) -f(t) dx +2f(t) =0$$ for all $t in mathbbR$. Let $epsilon >0$ be given. Then there exist $delta >0$ such that $|x|<delta implies |f(x-t)-f(x)|<epsilon$



                    Choose $delta <1$ if necessary, we get



                    $$0<2epsilon + 2f(t)$$
                    for all $t in mathbbR$. As $epsilon >0 $ was arbitrary we get $f(t) > 0$ for all $t in mathbbR$



                    Now putting $t=0$ in $(1)$ we have $int_-1^1 f(x) dx =0$. This gives $$int_mathbbR f(x) dx =0$$ As $f geq 0$, it follows that $f equiv 0$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jun 9 '17 at 18:06









                    Sahiba Arora

                    5,72831537




                    5,72831537




















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote



                        accepted










                        I cannot restrict myself at last by answering my own question.I have an answer analogous to one of my comments which is as follows $:$



                        First of all let us state a well known theorem $:$



                        Theorem $:$





                        Let $I=[a,b] subset mathbb R$ and let $f : I longrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous on $I$. Let $J=[c,d] subset mathbb R$ and let $u : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $u(J) subset I$; $v : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $v(J) subset I$. If $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ for $t in J$, then $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.





                        Now lets proceed to answer my own question with the help of the above theorem.



                        It is very easily seen that the integral $int_-1^1 f(x-t)dx$ can be transformed to the integral $int_-1-t^1-t f(x)dx$.Now take $I = [-3,3] subset mathbb R$ and also take $u(t) -1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$, $v(t)=1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$ and $J=[-2,2]$.Then clearly by the given hypothesis $f$ is continuous on $I$; $u(J) subset I$ and $v(J) subset I$.Then by the above theorem the function $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ , $t in J$ is differentiable on $J$ and $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.



                        Now after some calculation we have $g'(t) = f(-1-t) - f(1-t)$ for all $t in J$.By the given hypothesis $g(t) = 0$ for all $t in J$.Hence so is $g'(t)$ and consequently $f(-1-t) = f(1-t)$ for all $ t in J$ $-$$-$$-$$-$$-$ $(1)$.



                        First put $t=-2 in J$ then we have $f(1)=f(3)=0$ since it is given that $f(x)=0$ for $|x| >1$.Now put $t=0$ then we have $f(-1)=f(1)=0$.Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we have $1-c in (0,2) subset J$ so taking $t=1-c$ we have from $(1)$ $f(c)=f(-2+c)=0$ since $|-2+c|>1$ because $-2+c in (-3,-1)$ for $c in (-1,1)$.This shows that $f(x)=0$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



                        Therefore $f(x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb R$.Which proves our claim.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote



                          accepted










                          I cannot restrict myself at last by answering my own question.I have an answer analogous to one of my comments which is as follows $:$



                          First of all let us state a well known theorem $:$



                          Theorem $:$





                          Let $I=[a,b] subset mathbb R$ and let $f : I longrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous on $I$. Let $J=[c,d] subset mathbb R$ and let $u : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $u(J) subset I$; $v : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $v(J) subset I$. If $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ for $t in J$, then $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.





                          Now lets proceed to answer my own question with the help of the above theorem.



                          It is very easily seen that the integral $int_-1^1 f(x-t)dx$ can be transformed to the integral $int_-1-t^1-t f(x)dx$.Now take $I = [-3,3] subset mathbb R$ and also take $u(t) -1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$, $v(t)=1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$ and $J=[-2,2]$.Then clearly by the given hypothesis $f$ is continuous on $I$; $u(J) subset I$ and $v(J) subset I$.Then by the above theorem the function $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ , $t in J$ is differentiable on $J$ and $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.



                          Now after some calculation we have $g'(t) = f(-1-t) - f(1-t)$ for all $t in J$.By the given hypothesis $g(t) = 0$ for all $t in J$.Hence so is $g'(t)$ and consequently $f(-1-t) = f(1-t)$ for all $ t in J$ $-$$-$$-$$-$$-$ $(1)$.



                          First put $t=-2 in J$ then we have $f(1)=f(3)=0$ since it is given that $f(x)=0$ for $|x| >1$.Now put $t=0$ then we have $f(-1)=f(1)=0$.Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we have $1-c in (0,2) subset J$ so taking $t=1-c$ we have from $(1)$ $f(c)=f(-2+c)=0$ since $|-2+c|>1$ because $-2+c in (-3,-1)$ for $c in (-1,1)$.This shows that $f(x)=0$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



                          Therefore $f(x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb R$.Which proves our claim.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote



                            accepted







                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote



                            accepted






                            I cannot restrict myself at last by answering my own question.I have an answer analogous to one of my comments which is as follows $:$



                            First of all let us state a well known theorem $:$



                            Theorem $:$





                            Let $I=[a,b] subset mathbb R$ and let $f : I longrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous on $I$. Let $J=[c,d] subset mathbb R$ and let $u : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $u(J) subset I$; $v : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $v(J) subset I$. If $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ for $t in J$, then $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.





                            Now lets proceed to answer my own question with the help of the above theorem.



                            It is very easily seen that the integral $int_-1^1 f(x-t)dx$ can be transformed to the integral $int_-1-t^1-t f(x)dx$.Now take $I = [-3,3] subset mathbb R$ and also take $u(t) -1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$, $v(t)=1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$ and $J=[-2,2]$.Then clearly by the given hypothesis $f$ is continuous on $I$; $u(J) subset I$ and $v(J) subset I$.Then by the above theorem the function $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ , $t in J$ is differentiable on $J$ and $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.



                            Now after some calculation we have $g'(t) = f(-1-t) - f(1-t)$ for all $t in J$.By the given hypothesis $g(t) = 0$ for all $t in J$.Hence so is $g'(t)$ and consequently $f(-1-t) = f(1-t)$ for all $ t in J$ $-$$-$$-$$-$$-$ $(1)$.



                            First put $t=-2 in J$ then we have $f(1)=f(3)=0$ since it is given that $f(x)=0$ for $|x| >1$.Now put $t=0$ then we have $f(-1)=f(1)=0$.Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we have $1-c in (0,2) subset J$ so taking $t=1-c$ we have from $(1)$ $f(c)=f(-2+c)=0$ since $|-2+c|>1$ because $-2+c in (-3,-1)$ for $c in (-1,1)$.This shows that $f(x)=0$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



                            Therefore $f(x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb R$.Which proves our claim.






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            I cannot restrict myself at last by answering my own question.I have an answer analogous to one of my comments which is as follows $:$



                            First of all let us state a well known theorem $:$



                            Theorem $:$





                            Let $I=[a,b] subset mathbb R$ and let $f : I longrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous on $I$. Let $J=[c,d] subset mathbb R$ and let $u : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $u(J) subset I$; $v : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be differentiable on $J$ and $v(J) subset I$. If $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ be defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ for $t in J$, then $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.





                            Now lets proceed to answer my own question with the help of the above theorem.



                            It is very easily seen that the integral $int_-1^1 f(x-t)dx$ can be transformed to the integral $int_-1-t^1-t f(x)dx$.Now take $I = [-3,3] subset mathbb R$ and also take $u(t) -1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$, $v(t)=1-t$ , $t in [-2,2]$ and $J=[-2,2]$.Then clearly by the given hypothesis $f$ is continuous on $I$; $u(J) subset I$ and $v(J) subset I$.Then by the above theorem the function $g : J longrightarrow mathbb R$ defined by $g(t)=int_u(t)^v(t) f(x) dx$ , $t in J$ is differentiable on $J$ and $g'(t) = (f circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t in J$.



                            Now after some calculation we have $g'(t) = f(-1-t) - f(1-t)$ for all $t in J$.By the given hypothesis $g(t) = 0$ for all $t in J$.Hence so is $g'(t)$ and consequently $f(-1-t) = f(1-t)$ for all $ t in J$ $-$$-$$-$$-$$-$ $(1)$.



                            First put $t=-2 in J$ then we have $f(1)=f(3)=0$ since it is given that $f(x)=0$ for $|x| >1$.Now put $t=0$ then we have $f(-1)=f(1)=0$.Again for any $c in (-1,1)$ we have $1-c in (0,2) subset J$ so taking $t=1-c$ we have from $(1)$ $f(c)=f(-2+c)=0$ since $|-2+c|>1$ because $-2+c in (-3,-1)$ for $c in (-1,1)$.This shows that $f(x)=0$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



                            Therefore $f(x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb R$.Which proves our claim.







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Aug 31 at 3:45









                            Dbchatto67

                            32613




                            32613










                            answered Jun 11 '17 at 6:21









                            Arnab Chatterjee.

                            1,206318




                            1,206318



























                                 

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