Why so many verbs in this sentence in the published book?

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There is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




(The Great Gatsby, by F. Scott Fitzgerald, emphasis added)



Isn't it better to write "there is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that come over on the Cunard or White Star Line."?



Is this common in native writing? Or speaking?






syntax idiomatic-language







share|improve this question





























    up vote
    7
    down vote

    favorite
    2













    There is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




    (The Great Gatsby, by F. Scott Fitzgerald, emphasis added)



    Isn't it better to write "there is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that come over on the Cunard or White Star Line."?



    Is this common in native writing? Or speaking?






    syntax idiomatic-language







    share|improve this question

























      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2






      There is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




      (The Great Gatsby, by F. Scott Fitzgerald, emphasis added)



      Isn't it better to write "there is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that come over on the Cunard or White Star Line."?



      Is this common in native writing? Or speaking?






      syntax idiomatic-language







      share|improve this question
















      There is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




      (The Great Gatsby, by F. Scott Fitzgerald, emphasis added)



      Isn't it better to write "there is a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that come over on the Cunard or White Star Line."?



      Is this common in native writing? Or speaking?






      syntax idiomatic-language




      syntax idiomatic-language






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Aug 31 at 17:30









      ColleenV♦

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      asked Aug 30 at 23:24









      user81252

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          2 Answers
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          oldest

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          up vote
          10
          down vote



          accepted










          'come' here is not a finite verb, but a past participle used as an adjective modifying 'nightingale'. The original sentence could be expanded as:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that is come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          The unusual thing about this sentence is the use of the past participle 'come' as an adjective for the person (or nightingale) that came. This usage of 'come' is now considered archaic. See: He is come. In standard modern usage, you would have to change it to:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          Note that 'that is' can be optionally removed here, whereas 'that has' cannot be removed.






          share|improve this answer
















          • 4




            Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Aug 31 at 5:59

















          up vote
          9
          down vote













          In this case come is not a finite verb but a participle. If you want to paraphrase the clause it heads as a relative clause you should cast it in the perfect construction:




          . . . a nightingale which has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          In grammatical fact, however, this is an adjectival use of the participle. Today we rarely use the participles of intransitive verbs adjectivally—the adjectival participle is usually passive in sense. But at one time the perfects of verbs of motion were routinely expressed with BE rather than HAVE, and the participles acted simultaneously as perfects and predicative complements.




          Joy to the world! The Lord is come.




          This use still survives in expressions like "John is gone."



          Fitzgerald's use is paralleled in Hamlet:




          There needs no ghost, my lord, come from the grave / To tell us this







          share|improve this answer


















          • 1




            "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
            – psmears
            Aug 31 at 13:44






          • 1




            Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
            – Michael Kay
            Aug 31 at 14:31






          • 1




            @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:38










          • @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:39










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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          up vote
          10
          down vote



          accepted










          'come' here is not a finite verb, but a past participle used as an adjective modifying 'nightingale'. The original sentence could be expanded as:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that is come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          The unusual thing about this sentence is the use of the past participle 'come' as an adjective for the person (or nightingale) that came. This usage of 'come' is now considered archaic. See: He is come. In standard modern usage, you would have to change it to:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          Note that 'that is' can be optionally removed here, whereas 'that has' cannot be removed.






          share|improve this answer
















          • 4




            Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Aug 31 at 5:59














          up vote
          10
          down vote



          accepted










          'come' here is not a finite verb, but a past participle used as an adjective modifying 'nightingale'. The original sentence could be expanded as:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that is come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          The unusual thing about this sentence is the use of the past participle 'come' as an adjective for the person (or nightingale) that came. This usage of 'come' is now considered archaic. See: He is come. In standard modern usage, you would have to change it to:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          Note that 'that is' can be optionally removed here, whereas 'that has' cannot be removed.






          share|improve this answer
















          • 4




            Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Aug 31 at 5:59












          up vote
          10
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          10
          down vote



          accepted






          'come' here is not a finite verb, but a past participle used as an adjective modifying 'nightingale'. The original sentence could be expanded as:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that is come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          The unusual thing about this sentence is the use of the past participle 'come' as an adjective for the person (or nightingale) that came. This usage of 'come' is now considered archaic. See: He is come. In standard modern usage, you would have to change it to:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          Note that 'that is' can be optionally removed here, whereas 'that has' cannot be removed.






          share|improve this answer












          'come' here is not a finite verb, but a past participle used as an adjective modifying 'nightingale'. The original sentence could be expanded as:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that is come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          The unusual thing about this sentence is the use of the past participle 'come' as an adjective for the person (or nightingale) that came. This usage of 'come' is now considered archaic. See: He is come. In standard modern usage, you would have to change it to:




          There's a bird on the lawn that I think must be a nightingale that has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          Note that 'that is' can be optionally removed here, whereas 'that has' cannot be removed.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered Aug 31 at 0:45









          Paul Dexter

          1,556711




          1,556711







          • 4




            Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Aug 31 at 5:59












          • 4




            Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
            – WhatRoughBeast
            Aug 31 at 5:59







          4




          4




          Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
          – WhatRoughBeast
          Aug 31 at 5:59




          Or, alternatively, "a nightingale that came over".
          – WhatRoughBeast
          Aug 31 at 5:59












          up vote
          9
          down vote













          In this case come is not a finite verb but a participle. If you want to paraphrase the clause it heads as a relative clause you should cast it in the perfect construction:




          . . . a nightingale which has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          In grammatical fact, however, this is an adjectival use of the participle. Today we rarely use the participles of intransitive verbs adjectivally—the adjectival participle is usually passive in sense. But at one time the perfects of verbs of motion were routinely expressed with BE rather than HAVE, and the participles acted simultaneously as perfects and predicative complements.




          Joy to the world! The Lord is come.




          This use still survives in expressions like "John is gone."



          Fitzgerald's use is paralleled in Hamlet:




          There needs no ghost, my lord, come from the grave / To tell us this







          share|improve this answer


















          • 1




            "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
            – psmears
            Aug 31 at 13:44






          • 1




            Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
            – Michael Kay
            Aug 31 at 14:31






          • 1




            @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:38










          • @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:39














          up vote
          9
          down vote













          In this case come is not a finite verb but a participle. If you want to paraphrase the clause it heads as a relative clause you should cast it in the perfect construction:




          . . . a nightingale which has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          In grammatical fact, however, this is an adjectival use of the participle. Today we rarely use the participles of intransitive verbs adjectivally—the adjectival participle is usually passive in sense. But at one time the perfects of verbs of motion were routinely expressed with BE rather than HAVE, and the participles acted simultaneously as perfects and predicative complements.




          Joy to the world! The Lord is come.




          This use still survives in expressions like "John is gone."



          Fitzgerald's use is paralleled in Hamlet:




          There needs no ghost, my lord, come from the grave / To tell us this







          share|improve this answer


















          • 1




            "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
            – psmears
            Aug 31 at 13:44






          • 1




            Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
            – Michael Kay
            Aug 31 at 14:31






          • 1




            @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:38










          • @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:39












          up vote
          9
          down vote










          up vote
          9
          down vote









          In this case come is not a finite verb but a participle. If you want to paraphrase the clause it heads as a relative clause you should cast it in the perfect construction:




          . . . a nightingale which has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          In grammatical fact, however, this is an adjectival use of the participle. Today we rarely use the participles of intransitive verbs adjectivally—the adjectival participle is usually passive in sense. But at one time the perfects of verbs of motion were routinely expressed with BE rather than HAVE, and the participles acted simultaneously as perfects and predicative complements.




          Joy to the world! The Lord is come.




          This use still survives in expressions like "John is gone."



          Fitzgerald's use is paralleled in Hamlet:




          There needs no ghost, my lord, come from the grave / To tell us this







          share|improve this answer














          In this case come is not a finite verb but a participle. If you want to paraphrase the clause it heads as a relative clause you should cast it in the perfect construction:




          . . . a nightingale which has come over on the Cunard or White Star Line.




          In grammatical fact, however, this is an adjectival use of the participle. Today we rarely use the participles of intransitive verbs adjectivally—the adjectival participle is usually passive in sense. But at one time the perfects of verbs of motion were routinely expressed with BE rather than HAVE, and the participles acted simultaneously as perfects and predicative complements.




          Joy to the world! The Lord is come.




          This use still survives in expressions like "John is gone."



          Fitzgerald's use is paralleled in Hamlet:




          There needs no ghost, my lord, come from the grave / To tell us this








          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Aug 31 at 14:39

























          answered Aug 31 at 0:59









          StoneyB

          167k10225399




          167k10225399







          • 1




            "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
            – psmears
            Aug 31 at 13:44






          • 1




            Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
            – Michael Kay
            Aug 31 at 14:31






          • 1




            @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:38










          • @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:39












          • 1




            "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
            – psmears
            Aug 31 at 13:44






          • 1




            Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
            – Michael Kay
            Aug 31 at 14:31






          • 1




            @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:38










          • @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
            – StoneyB
            Aug 31 at 14:39







          1




          1




          "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
          – psmears
          Aug 31 at 13:44




          "John's gone" isn't a great example, because the "'s" could be either "is" or "has"...
          – psmears
          Aug 31 at 13:44




          1




          1




          Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
          – Michael Kay
          Aug 31 at 14:31




          Interesting! In German "Ich bin gekommen" (literally "I am come") is of course regular and required usage.
          – Michael Kay
          Aug 31 at 14:31




          1




          1




          @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
          – StoneyB
          Aug 31 at 14:38




          @MichaelKay Yes, and in French, too. German of course doesn't have the passive implication with SEIN; I wonder if this might have contributed to its retention.
          – StoneyB
          Aug 31 at 14:38












          @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
          – StoneyB
          Aug 31 at 14:39




          @psmears Good point -- I'll fix it.
          – StoneyB
          Aug 31 at 14:39

















           

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