Holomorphic function having finitely many zeros in the open unit disc

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Suppose $f$ is continuous on the closed unit disc $overlinemathbbD$ and is holomorphic on the open unit disc $mathbbD$. Must $f$ have finitely many zeros in $mathbbD$? I know that this is true if $f$ is holomorphic in $overlinemathbbD$ (by compactness of the closed unit disc), but I'm not sure of what happens when I just consider $mathbbD$.










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  • Consider the function 0.
    – mez
    Aug 20 '14 at 1:20














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Suppose $f$ is continuous on the closed unit disc $overlinemathbbD$ and is holomorphic on the open unit disc $mathbbD$. Must $f$ have finitely many zeros in $mathbbD$? I know that this is true if $f$ is holomorphic in $overlinemathbbD$ (by compactness of the closed unit disc), but I'm not sure of what happens when I just consider $mathbbD$.










share|cite|improve this question





















  • Consider the function 0.
    – mez
    Aug 20 '14 at 1:20












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











Suppose $f$ is continuous on the closed unit disc $overlinemathbbD$ and is holomorphic on the open unit disc $mathbbD$. Must $f$ have finitely many zeros in $mathbbD$? I know that this is true if $f$ is holomorphic in $overlinemathbbD$ (by compactness of the closed unit disc), but I'm not sure of what happens when I just consider $mathbbD$.










share|cite|improve this question













Suppose $f$ is continuous on the closed unit disc $overlinemathbbD$ and is holomorphic on the open unit disc $mathbbD$. Must $f$ have finitely many zeros in $mathbbD$? I know that this is true if $f$ is holomorphic in $overlinemathbbD$ (by compactness of the closed unit disc), but I'm not sure of what happens when I just consider $mathbbD$.







complex-analysis






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asked Nov 10 '13 at 5:03









nji1

161




161











  • Consider the function 0.
    – mez
    Aug 20 '14 at 1:20
















  • Consider the function 0.
    – mez
    Aug 20 '14 at 1:20















Consider the function 0.
– mez
Aug 20 '14 at 1:20




Consider the function 0.
– mez
Aug 20 '14 at 1:20










3 Answers
3






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up vote
5
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If $f$ is continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ then it is bounded. In that case there is a strong consequence of Jensen's formula. If $|f| leq M$, $f(0) neq 0$ and $S$ is the (possibly infinite) multiset of roots of $f$ on $mathbb D$ then



$$prod_z in S |z| geq fracM > 0.$$



This implies that $$sum_z in S(1-|z|) < infty.$$



So, loosely speaking, the roots of $f$ must quickly converge to the unit circle. The condition $f(0) neq 0$ can be circumvented. There is a unique integer $m geq 0$ such that $$g(z) = fracf(z)z^m$$ is holomorphic and $g(0) neq 0$. If $S$ is the multiset of non-zero roots of $f$ then the inequality above becomes



$$prod_z in S |z| geq fracf^(m)(0)m! , M.$$



An explicit example of a function $f$ that is holomorphic on $mathbb D$, continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ and has infinitely many roots is



$$ f(z) = (1-z^2) sin(operatornameatanh(z)).$$



To understand this example, note that $operatornameatanh$ maps $mathbb D$ biholomorphically onto the strip $ z mid -fracpi4 < operatornameIm(z) < fracpi4 $ where $pm 1$ maps to $pm infty$. Now note that $sin$ is bounded and has infinitely many roots on this strip. The factor $1-z^2$ makes sure that it is continuous at $pm 1$ (and has roots there as it should).






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  • How about the branch cuts of artanh?
    – user64494
    Nov 10 '13 at 9:50











  • @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
    – WimC
    Nov 10 '13 at 9:57


















up vote
2
down vote













An example of a function on the open unit disk with infinitely many zeros would be the Fourier expansion of a modular form. As mentioned in WimC's answer, the zeros accumulate along the unit disk - in the picture below of the normalized Eisenstein series of weight 4 (a basic example of a modular form), the blue areas surround the zeros, and unfortunately they get hard to see as you get toward the unit circle, but they are there. Follow their arc and you can make them out for a while. This function is given by $$E_4(z)=1 + 240sumlimits_n=1^infty sigma_3(n)e^2pi i z,$$
where $sigma_3(n)=sumlimits_dvert n d^3$ is the sum of divisors function.



Modulus of Eisenstein series of weight 4






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Any accumulation point of the zeros must be on the boundary, of course. You can show in this case that the series centered at 0 has radius of convergence 1. For a specific example, I think the following works:



    For $|z| leq 1$, $$f(z) = (z-1)prod_n=1^inftyfracz-1+1/n^21-(1-1/n^2)z.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
      – user64494
      Nov 10 '13 at 7:06










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    3 Answers
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    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    5
    down vote













    If $f$ is continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ then it is bounded. In that case there is a strong consequence of Jensen's formula. If $|f| leq M$, $f(0) neq 0$ and $S$ is the (possibly infinite) multiset of roots of $f$ on $mathbb D$ then



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracM > 0.$$



    This implies that $$sum_z in S(1-|z|) < infty.$$



    So, loosely speaking, the roots of $f$ must quickly converge to the unit circle. The condition $f(0) neq 0$ can be circumvented. There is a unique integer $m geq 0$ such that $$g(z) = fracf(z)z^m$$ is holomorphic and $g(0) neq 0$. If $S$ is the multiset of non-zero roots of $f$ then the inequality above becomes



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracf^(m)(0)m! , M.$$



    An explicit example of a function $f$ that is holomorphic on $mathbb D$, continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ and has infinitely many roots is



    $$ f(z) = (1-z^2) sin(operatornameatanh(z)).$$



    To understand this example, note that $operatornameatanh$ maps $mathbb D$ biholomorphically onto the strip $ z mid -fracpi4 < operatornameIm(z) < fracpi4 $ where $pm 1$ maps to $pm infty$. Now note that $sin$ is bounded and has infinitely many roots on this strip. The factor $1-z^2$ makes sure that it is continuous at $pm 1$ (and has roots there as it should).






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • How about the branch cuts of artanh?
      – user64494
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:50











    • @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
      – WimC
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:57















    up vote
    5
    down vote













    If $f$ is continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ then it is bounded. In that case there is a strong consequence of Jensen's formula. If $|f| leq M$, $f(0) neq 0$ and $S$ is the (possibly infinite) multiset of roots of $f$ on $mathbb D$ then



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracM > 0.$$



    This implies that $$sum_z in S(1-|z|) < infty.$$



    So, loosely speaking, the roots of $f$ must quickly converge to the unit circle. The condition $f(0) neq 0$ can be circumvented. There is a unique integer $m geq 0$ such that $$g(z) = fracf(z)z^m$$ is holomorphic and $g(0) neq 0$. If $S$ is the multiset of non-zero roots of $f$ then the inequality above becomes



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracf^(m)(0)m! , M.$$



    An explicit example of a function $f$ that is holomorphic on $mathbb D$, continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ and has infinitely many roots is



    $$ f(z) = (1-z^2) sin(operatornameatanh(z)).$$



    To understand this example, note that $operatornameatanh$ maps $mathbb D$ biholomorphically onto the strip $ z mid -fracpi4 < operatornameIm(z) < fracpi4 $ where $pm 1$ maps to $pm infty$. Now note that $sin$ is bounded and has infinitely many roots on this strip. The factor $1-z^2$ makes sure that it is continuous at $pm 1$ (and has roots there as it should).






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • How about the branch cuts of artanh?
      – user64494
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:50











    • @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
      – WimC
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:57













    up vote
    5
    down vote










    up vote
    5
    down vote









    If $f$ is continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ then it is bounded. In that case there is a strong consequence of Jensen's formula. If $|f| leq M$, $f(0) neq 0$ and $S$ is the (possibly infinite) multiset of roots of $f$ on $mathbb D$ then



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracM > 0.$$



    This implies that $$sum_z in S(1-|z|) < infty.$$



    So, loosely speaking, the roots of $f$ must quickly converge to the unit circle. The condition $f(0) neq 0$ can be circumvented. There is a unique integer $m geq 0$ such that $$g(z) = fracf(z)z^m$$ is holomorphic and $g(0) neq 0$. If $S$ is the multiset of non-zero roots of $f$ then the inequality above becomes



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracf^(m)(0)m! , M.$$



    An explicit example of a function $f$ that is holomorphic on $mathbb D$, continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ and has infinitely many roots is



    $$ f(z) = (1-z^2) sin(operatornameatanh(z)).$$



    To understand this example, note that $operatornameatanh$ maps $mathbb D$ biholomorphically onto the strip $ z mid -fracpi4 < operatornameIm(z) < fracpi4 $ where $pm 1$ maps to $pm infty$. Now note that $sin$ is bounded and has infinitely many roots on this strip. The factor $1-z^2$ makes sure that it is continuous at $pm 1$ (and has roots there as it should).






    share|cite|improve this answer












    If $f$ is continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ then it is bounded. In that case there is a strong consequence of Jensen's formula. If $|f| leq M$, $f(0) neq 0$ and $S$ is the (possibly infinite) multiset of roots of $f$ on $mathbb D$ then



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracM > 0.$$



    This implies that $$sum_z in S(1-|z|) < infty.$$



    So, loosely speaking, the roots of $f$ must quickly converge to the unit circle. The condition $f(0) neq 0$ can be circumvented. There is a unique integer $m geq 0$ such that $$g(z) = fracf(z)z^m$$ is holomorphic and $g(0) neq 0$. If $S$ is the multiset of non-zero roots of $f$ then the inequality above becomes



    $$prod_z in S |z| geq fracf^(m)(0)m! , M.$$



    An explicit example of a function $f$ that is holomorphic on $mathbb D$, continuous on $overlinemathbb D$ and has infinitely many roots is



    $$ f(z) = (1-z^2) sin(operatornameatanh(z)).$$



    To understand this example, note that $operatornameatanh$ maps $mathbb D$ biholomorphically onto the strip $ z mid -fracpi4 < operatornameIm(z) < fracpi4 $ where $pm 1$ maps to $pm infty$. Now note that $sin$ is bounded and has infinitely many roots on this strip. The factor $1-z^2$ makes sure that it is continuous at $pm 1$ (and has roots there as it should).







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 10 '13 at 9:22









    WimC

    23.8k22860




    23.8k22860











    • How about the branch cuts of artanh?
      – user64494
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:50











    • @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
      – WimC
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:57

















    • How about the branch cuts of artanh?
      – user64494
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:50











    • @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
      – WimC
      Nov 10 '13 at 9:57
















    How about the branch cuts of artanh?
    – user64494
    Nov 10 '13 at 9:50





    How about the branch cuts of artanh?
    – user64494
    Nov 10 '13 at 9:50













    @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
    – WimC
    Nov 10 '13 at 9:57





    @user64494 I assume $operatornameatanh(0) = 0$. It is holomorphic (single valued) on $mathbb D$.
    – WimC
    Nov 10 '13 at 9:57











    up vote
    2
    down vote













    An example of a function on the open unit disk with infinitely many zeros would be the Fourier expansion of a modular form. As mentioned in WimC's answer, the zeros accumulate along the unit disk - in the picture below of the normalized Eisenstein series of weight 4 (a basic example of a modular form), the blue areas surround the zeros, and unfortunately they get hard to see as you get toward the unit circle, but they are there. Follow their arc and you can make them out for a while. This function is given by $$E_4(z)=1 + 240sumlimits_n=1^infty sigma_3(n)e^2pi i z,$$
    where $sigma_3(n)=sumlimits_dvert n d^3$ is the sum of divisors function.



    Modulus of Eisenstein series of weight 4






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      2
      down vote













      An example of a function on the open unit disk with infinitely many zeros would be the Fourier expansion of a modular form. As mentioned in WimC's answer, the zeros accumulate along the unit disk - in the picture below of the normalized Eisenstein series of weight 4 (a basic example of a modular form), the blue areas surround the zeros, and unfortunately they get hard to see as you get toward the unit circle, but they are there. Follow their arc and you can make them out for a while. This function is given by $$E_4(z)=1 + 240sumlimits_n=1^infty sigma_3(n)e^2pi i z,$$
      where $sigma_3(n)=sumlimits_dvert n d^3$ is the sum of divisors function.



      Modulus of Eisenstein series of weight 4






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        2
        down vote










        up vote
        2
        down vote









        An example of a function on the open unit disk with infinitely many zeros would be the Fourier expansion of a modular form. As mentioned in WimC's answer, the zeros accumulate along the unit disk - in the picture below of the normalized Eisenstein series of weight 4 (a basic example of a modular form), the blue areas surround the zeros, and unfortunately they get hard to see as you get toward the unit circle, but they are there. Follow their arc and you can make them out for a while. This function is given by $$E_4(z)=1 + 240sumlimits_n=1^infty sigma_3(n)e^2pi i z,$$
        where $sigma_3(n)=sumlimits_dvert n d^3$ is the sum of divisors function.



        Modulus of Eisenstein series of weight 4






        share|cite|improve this answer












        An example of a function on the open unit disk with infinitely many zeros would be the Fourier expansion of a modular form. As mentioned in WimC's answer, the zeros accumulate along the unit disk - in the picture below of the normalized Eisenstein series of weight 4 (a basic example of a modular form), the blue areas surround the zeros, and unfortunately they get hard to see as you get toward the unit circle, but they are there. Follow their arc and you can make them out for a while. This function is given by $$E_4(z)=1 + 240sumlimits_n=1^infty sigma_3(n)e^2pi i z,$$
        where $sigma_3(n)=sumlimits_dvert n d^3$ is the sum of divisors function.



        Modulus of Eisenstein series of weight 4







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Apr 21 '17 at 19:15









        Ben

        768




        768




















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Any accumulation point of the zeros must be on the boundary, of course. You can show in this case that the series centered at 0 has radius of convergence 1. For a specific example, I think the following works:



            For $|z| leq 1$, $$f(z) = (z-1)prod_n=1^inftyfracz-1+1/n^21-(1-1/n^2)z.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
              – user64494
              Nov 10 '13 at 7:06














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Any accumulation point of the zeros must be on the boundary, of course. You can show in this case that the series centered at 0 has radius of convergence 1. For a specific example, I think the following works:



            For $|z| leq 1$, $$f(z) = (z-1)prod_n=1^inftyfracz-1+1/n^21-(1-1/n^2)z.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
              – user64494
              Nov 10 '13 at 7:06












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Any accumulation point of the zeros must be on the boundary, of course. You can show in this case that the series centered at 0 has radius of convergence 1. For a specific example, I think the following works:



            For $|z| leq 1$, $$f(z) = (z-1)prod_n=1^inftyfracz-1+1/n^21-(1-1/n^2)z.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Any accumulation point of the zeros must be on the boundary, of course. You can show in this case that the series centered at 0 has radius of convergence 1. For a specific example, I think the following works:



            For $|z| leq 1$, $$f(z) = (z-1)prod_n=1^inftyfracz-1+1/n^21-(1-1/n^2)z.$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 10 '13 at 6:32









            zibadawa timmy

            3,4761023




            3,4761023











            • Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
              – user64494
              Nov 10 '13 at 7:06
















            • Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
              – user64494
              Nov 10 '13 at 7:06















            Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
            – user64494
            Nov 10 '13 at 7:06




            Could you explain why $f$ is continuous in $ overlinemathbbD$?
            – user64494
            Nov 10 '13 at 7:06

















             

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