Number of possible ways to distribute 15 chocolate bars among 10 children

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(Introduction to Probability, Blitzstein and Nwang, p. 39)




There are 15 chocolate bars and 10 children. In how many ways can the chocolate bars
be distributed to the children, in each of the following scenarios?



(a) The chocolate bars are fungible (interchangeable).



(b) The chocolate bars are fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
Hint: First give each child a chocolate bar, and then decide what to do with the rest.



(c) The chocolate bars are not fungible (it matters which particular bar goes where).



(d) The chocolate bars are not fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
Hint: The strategy suggested in (b) does not apply. Instead, consider randomly giving
the chocolate bars to the children, and apply inclusion-exclusion.




My solutions:



a) I'm imagining for each chocolate bar to randomly sample from the children with replacement, with order not mattering. This would yield $binom10+15-115$ possibilities.



b) Now I first choose one chocolate bar for each child, and then I do the same as in a) with the remaining 5 bar, so I get $binom1510 binom10+5-15$ possibilities.



EDIT
I'm ignoring here that the bars are exchangeable, so it should be only $binom10+5-15$. Or said differently, there is only one way to give a bar to each child.



c) I think this is sampling with replacement where order matters, so $10^15$ possible sequences.



d)



beginalign
Omega &:= lbrace s|s text is a 15 digit number with digits form [1-10]rbrace \
A_i &:=lbrace s in Omega | s text contains at least (one or more) i's rbrace \
neg A_i &= Omega setminus A_i \
|Omega| &= 10^15 \
|neg A_i| &= 9^15 \
|neg A_i cap neg A_j| &= 8^15 \
textetc.
endalign



beginequation
textPossibilities that each childs gets at least one bar = sum_i=0^i=10 binom10i (10-i)^15 (-1)^i
endequation



Are those results correct? I'm not quite sure about a) and b), since I think the number of possibilities in b) should be less than in a).










share|cite|improve this question



























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    (Introduction to Probability, Blitzstein and Nwang, p. 39)




    There are 15 chocolate bars and 10 children. In how many ways can the chocolate bars
    be distributed to the children, in each of the following scenarios?



    (a) The chocolate bars are fungible (interchangeable).



    (b) The chocolate bars are fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
    Hint: First give each child a chocolate bar, and then decide what to do with the rest.



    (c) The chocolate bars are not fungible (it matters which particular bar goes where).



    (d) The chocolate bars are not fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
    Hint: The strategy suggested in (b) does not apply. Instead, consider randomly giving
    the chocolate bars to the children, and apply inclusion-exclusion.




    My solutions:



    a) I'm imagining for each chocolate bar to randomly sample from the children with replacement, with order not mattering. This would yield $binom10+15-115$ possibilities.



    b) Now I first choose one chocolate bar for each child, and then I do the same as in a) with the remaining 5 bar, so I get $binom1510 binom10+5-15$ possibilities.



    EDIT
    I'm ignoring here that the bars are exchangeable, so it should be only $binom10+5-15$. Or said differently, there is only one way to give a bar to each child.



    c) I think this is sampling with replacement where order matters, so $10^15$ possible sequences.



    d)



    beginalign
    Omega &:= lbrace s|s text is a 15 digit number with digits form [1-10]rbrace \
    A_i &:=lbrace s in Omega | s text contains at least (one or more) i's rbrace \
    neg A_i &= Omega setminus A_i \
    |Omega| &= 10^15 \
    |neg A_i| &= 9^15 \
    |neg A_i cap neg A_j| &= 8^15 \
    textetc.
    endalign



    beginequation
    textPossibilities that each childs gets at least one bar = sum_i=0^i=10 binom10i (10-i)^15 (-1)^i
    endequation



    Are those results correct? I'm not quite sure about a) and b), since I think the number of possibilities in b) should be less than in a).










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      (Introduction to Probability, Blitzstein and Nwang, p. 39)




      There are 15 chocolate bars and 10 children. In how many ways can the chocolate bars
      be distributed to the children, in each of the following scenarios?



      (a) The chocolate bars are fungible (interchangeable).



      (b) The chocolate bars are fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
      Hint: First give each child a chocolate bar, and then decide what to do with the rest.



      (c) The chocolate bars are not fungible (it matters which particular bar goes where).



      (d) The chocolate bars are not fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
      Hint: The strategy suggested in (b) does not apply. Instead, consider randomly giving
      the chocolate bars to the children, and apply inclusion-exclusion.




      My solutions:



      a) I'm imagining for each chocolate bar to randomly sample from the children with replacement, with order not mattering. This would yield $binom10+15-115$ possibilities.



      b) Now I first choose one chocolate bar for each child, and then I do the same as in a) with the remaining 5 bar, so I get $binom1510 binom10+5-15$ possibilities.



      EDIT
      I'm ignoring here that the bars are exchangeable, so it should be only $binom10+5-15$. Or said differently, there is only one way to give a bar to each child.



      c) I think this is sampling with replacement where order matters, so $10^15$ possible sequences.



      d)



      beginalign
      Omega &:= lbrace s|s text is a 15 digit number with digits form [1-10]rbrace \
      A_i &:=lbrace s in Omega | s text contains at least (one or more) i's rbrace \
      neg A_i &= Omega setminus A_i \
      |Omega| &= 10^15 \
      |neg A_i| &= 9^15 \
      |neg A_i cap neg A_j| &= 8^15 \
      textetc.
      endalign



      beginequation
      textPossibilities that each childs gets at least one bar = sum_i=0^i=10 binom10i (10-i)^15 (-1)^i
      endequation



      Are those results correct? I'm not quite sure about a) and b), since I think the number of possibilities in b) should be less than in a).










      share|cite|improve this question















      (Introduction to Probability, Blitzstein and Nwang, p. 39)




      There are 15 chocolate bars and 10 children. In how many ways can the chocolate bars
      be distributed to the children, in each of the following scenarios?



      (a) The chocolate bars are fungible (interchangeable).



      (b) The chocolate bars are fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
      Hint: First give each child a chocolate bar, and then decide what to do with the rest.



      (c) The chocolate bars are not fungible (it matters which particular bar goes where).



      (d) The chocolate bars are not fungible, and each child must receive at least one.
      Hint: The strategy suggested in (b) does not apply. Instead, consider randomly giving
      the chocolate bars to the children, and apply inclusion-exclusion.




      My solutions:



      a) I'm imagining for each chocolate bar to randomly sample from the children with replacement, with order not mattering. This would yield $binom10+15-115$ possibilities.



      b) Now I first choose one chocolate bar for each child, and then I do the same as in a) with the remaining 5 bar, so I get $binom1510 binom10+5-15$ possibilities.



      EDIT
      I'm ignoring here that the bars are exchangeable, so it should be only $binom10+5-15$. Or said differently, there is only one way to give a bar to each child.



      c) I think this is sampling with replacement where order matters, so $10^15$ possible sequences.



      d)



      beginalign
      Omega &:= lbrace s|s text is a 15 digit number with digits form [1-10]rbrace \
      A_i &:=lbrace s in Omega | s text contains at least (one or more) i's rbrace \
      neg A_i &= Omega setminus A_i \
      |Omega| &= 10^15 \
      |neg A_i| &= 9^15 \
      |neg A_i cap neg A_j| &= 8^15 \
      textetc.
      endalign



      beginequation
      textPossibilities that each childs gets at least one bar = sum_i=0^i=10 binom10i (10-i)^15 (-1)^i
      endequation



      Are those results correct? I'm not quite sure about a) and b), since I think the number of possibilities in b) should be less than in a).







      probability combinatorics






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      edited Dec 9 '14 at 11:30

























      asked Dec 9 '14 at 9:24









      NoBackingDown

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          3 Answers
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          up vote
          2
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          I have a different view of your question. I will focus on question b). Firstly, we put all the chocolate bars in a line. Because all the bars are interchangeable, there is only one way to line them up(it's $15!$ ways if bars are different from each other). Just like this:
          $$ 0;0 ;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0 $$
          Then we can cut 9 lines to divide the bars line into 10 parts and give the first part to first child, second part to second child and so on. Here is one example for partition:
          $$ 0;|0 ;|0;0;|0;|0;|0;|0;0;0;|0;0;|0;0;|0 $$
          One advantage of this partition is that we can guarantee that each students will receive at least one chocolate.



          We are looking for 9 places to cut and (15-1) places are available. So the total number of partitions is $ beginpmatrix14 \9 endpmatrix $.



          This solution can be also applied to question a). But we need to add another 10 bars in the line, and subtract 1 bars for each child. The number of partitions in this setting is
          $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $ which is the same as your answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
            – NoBackingDown
            Dec 9 '14 at 10:28











          • @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
            – NalRa
            Dec 9 '14 at 10:44











          • Okay, I got it.
            – NoBackingDown
            Dec 9 '14 at 10:58










          • any idea about c) and d) ?
            – NoBackingDown
            Dec 9 '14 at 11:32

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          A comment on your b) answer.
          (Due to it being indistinguishable chocolate bars)
          Look at it from the aspect of not having any excess first, so you only have the amount of candy bars as children. So to give each child a candy bar will equal out to 1 possible way or (10 choose 10), then choose what to do with the rest.



          $10 choose 10* 10 + 5 - 1 choose 5 = 2002$



          or



          $14 choose 5= 2002$






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            For part c) yes you have a set of 15 that involves all possible combinations. so each child has 15 possibilities of getting assigned candy hence $10^15$ is correct. yes part d) is correct.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              2
              down vote













              I have a different view of your question. I will focus on question b). Firstly, we put all the chocolate bars in a line. Because all the bars are interchangeable, there is only one way to line them up(it's $15!$ ways if bars are different from each other). Just like this:
              $$ 0;0 ;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0 $$
              Then we can cut 9 lines to divide the bars line into 10 parts and give the first part to first child, second part to second child and so on. Here is one example for partition:
              $$ 0;|0 ;|0;0;|0;|0;|0;|0;0;0;|0;0;|0;0;|0 $$
              One advantage of this partition is that we can guarantee that each students will receive at least one chocolate.



              We are looking for 9 places to cut and (15-1) places are available. So the total number of partitions is $ beginpmatrix14 \9 endpmatrix $.



              This solution can be also applied to question a). But we need to add another 10 bars in the line, and subtract 1 bars for each child. The number of partitions in this setting is
              $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $ which is the same as your answer.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:28











              • @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
                – NalRa
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:44











              • Okay, I got it.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:58










              • any idea about c) and d) ?
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 11:32














              up vote
              2
              down vote













              I have a different view of your question. I will focus on question b). Firstly, we put all the chocolate bars in a line. Because all the bars are interchangeable, there is only one way to line them up(it's $15!$ ways if bars are different from each other). Just like this:
              $$ 0;0 ;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0 $$
              Then we can cut 9 lines to divide the bars line into 10 parts and give the first part to first child, second part to second child and so on. Here is one example for partition:
              $$ 0;|0 ;|0;0;|0;|0;|0;|0;0;0;|0;0;|0;0;|0 $$
              One advantage of this partition is that we can guarantee that each students will receive at least one chocolate.



              We are looking for 9 places to cut and (15-1) places are available. So the total number of partitions is $ beginpmatrix14 \9 endpmatrix $.



              This solution can be also applied to question a). But we need to add another 10 bars in the line, and subtract 1 bars for each child. The number of partitions in this setting is
              $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $ which is the same as your answer.






              share|cite|improve this answer




















              • But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:28











              • @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
                – NalRa
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:44











              • Okay, I got it.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:58










              • any idea about c) and d) ?
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 11:32












              up vote
              2
              down vote










              up vote
              2
              down vote









              I have a different view of your question. I will focus on question b). Firstly, we put all the chocolate bars in a line. Because all the bars are interchangeable, there is only one way to line them up(it's $15!$ ways if bars are different from each other). Just like this:
              $$ 0;0 ;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0 $$
              Then we can cut 9 lines to divide the bars line into 10 parts and give the first part to first child, second part to second child and so on. Here is one example for partition:
              $$ 0;|0 ;|0;0;|0;|0;|0;|0;0;0;|0;0;|0;0;|0 $$
              One advantage of this partition is that we can guarantee that each students will receive at least one chocolate.



              We are looking for 9 places to cut and (15-1) places are available. So the total number of partitions is $ beginpmatrix14 \9 endpmatrix $.



              This solution can be also applied to question a). But we need to add another 10 bars in the line, and subtract 1 bars for each child. The number of partitions in this setting is
              $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $ which is the same as your answer.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              I have a different view of your question. I will focus on question b). Firstly, we put all the chocolate bars in a line. Because all the bars are interchangeable, there is only one way to line them up(it's $15!$ ways if bars are different from each other). Just like this:
              $$ 0;0 ;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0;0 $$
              Then we can cut 9 lines to divide the bars line into 10 parts and give the first part to first child, second part to second child and so on. Here is one example for partition:
              $$ 0;|0 ;|0;0;|0;|0;|0;|0;0;0;|0;0;|0;0;|0 $$
              One advantage of this partition is that we can guarantee that each students will receive at least one chocolate.



              We are looking for 9 places to cut and (15-1) places are available. So the total number of partitions is $ beginpmatrix14 \9 endpmatrix $.



              This solution can be also applied to question a). But we need to add another 10 bars in the line, and subtract 1 bars for each child. The number of partitions in this setting is
              $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $ which is the same as your answer.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 9 '14 at 10:06









              NalRa

              30717




              30717











              • But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:28











              • @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
                – NalRa
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:44











              • Okay, I got it.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:58










              • any idea about c) and d) ?
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 11:32
















              • But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:28











              • @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
                – NalRa
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:44











              • Okay, I got it.
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 10:58










              • any idea about c) and d) ?
                – NoBackingDown
                Dec 9 '14 at 11:32















              But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
              – NoBackingDown
              Dec 9 '14 at 10:28





              But my answer to a) was $binom2415$. I also don't understand why you would a another 10 bar to your line, as we only have a total of 15 bars available.
              – NoBackingDown
              Dec 9 '14 at 10:28













              @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
              – NalRa
              Dec 9 '14 at 10:44





              @Dominik Dear Friend. $ beginpmatrix24 \9 endpmatrix $is equal to $ beginpmatrix24 \15 endpmatrix $. And I add 10 another bars because in my partition, every child is given at least 1 chocolate bars which is different to settings in a). So I add 10 bars to line and subtract 1 bars for every child. I just give you an example. In one partition with 25 bars, Child 1 gets 2 bars and Child 2 gets 1 bars. So in real distribution, I give Child 1 $(2-1)$ bars and Child 2 $(1-1)$ bars. So that minimum number that each child can get can be reduced to 0
              – NalRa
              Dec 9 '14 at 10:44













              Okay, I got it.
              – NoBackingDown
              Dec 9 '14 at 10:58




              Okay, I got it.
              – NoBackingDown
              Dec 9 '14 at 10:58












              any idea about c) and d) ?
              – NoBackingDown
              Dec 9 '14 at 11:32




              any idea about c) and d) ?
              – NoBackingDown
              Dec 9 '14 at 11:32










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              A comment on your b) answer.
              (Due to it being indistinguishable chocolate bars)
              Look at it from the aspect of not having any excess first, so you only have the amount of candy bars as children. So to give each child a candy bar will equal out to 1 possible way or (10 choose 10), then choose what to do with the rest.



              $10 choose 10* 10 + 5 - 1 choose 5 = 2002$



              or



              $14 choose 5= 2002$






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                A comment on your b) answer.
                (Due to it being indistinguishable chocolate bars)
                Look at it from the aspect of not having any excess first, so you only have the amount of candy bars as children. So to give each child a candy bar will equal out to 1 possible way or (10 choose 10), then choose what to do with the rest.



                $10 choose 10* 10 + 5 - 1 choose 5 = 2002$



                or



                $14 choose 5= 2002$






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  A comment on your b) answer.
                  (Due to it being indistinguishable chocolate bars)
                  Look at it from the aspect of not having any excess first, so you only have the amount of candy bars as children. So to give each child a candy bar will equal out to 1 possible way or (10 choose 10), then choose what to do with the rest.



                  $10 choose 10* 10 + 5 - 1 choose 5 = 2002$



                  or



                  $14 choose 5= 2002$






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  A comment on your b) answer.
                  (Due to it being indistinguishable chocolate bars)
                  Look at it from the aspect of not having any excess first, so you only have the amount of candy bars as children. So to give each child a candy bar will equal out to 1 possible way or (10 choose 10), then choose what to do with the rest.



                  $10 choose 10* 10 + 5 - 1 choose 5 = 2002$



                  or



                  $14 choose 5= 2002$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Oct 22 '17 at 6:34









                  greedoid

                  28k93776




                  28k93776










                  answered Sep 21 '16 at 20:52









                  Matt

                  1




                  1




















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      For part c) yes you have a set of 15 that involves all possible combinations. so each child has 15 possibilities of getting assigned candy hence $10^15$ is correct. yes part d) is correct.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        For part c) yes you have a set of 15 that involves all possible combinations. so each child has 15 possibilities of getting assigned candy hence $10^15$ is correct. yes part d) is correct.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          For part c) yes you have a set of 15 that involves all possible combinations. so each child has 15 possibilities of getting assigned candy hence $10^15$ is correct. yes part d) is correct.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          For part c) yes you have a set of 15 that involves all possible combinations. so each child has 15 possibilities of getting assigned candy hence $10^15$ is correct. yes part d) is correct.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Sep 2 at 1:29

























                          answered Aug 31 at 6:38









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