Prove that $f$ has a unique fixed point.

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This is a practice problem for an exam I am taking.



Let $(X,rho )$ be a complete metric space and $f: X rightarrow X$ a function. Writing $f^n$ for the $n$-th iterate of $f$, denote



$$c_n := sup_x,y in X, x neq y fracrho(f^n(x),f^n(y))rho(x,y).$$



Assuming that $Sigma _n=1^infty c_n < infty $, prove that $f$ has a unique fixed point in $X$.



Since we are dealing with a complete metric space, I only need to show that $f$ is a contraction mapping. I know that given $x$ and $y$ in $X$,



$$ rho(f^n(x),f^n(y)) leq c_n rho(x,y).$$



Ultimately , I want to find some $lambda < 1$ such that $rho(f(x),f(y)) leq lambda rho(x,y).$ Any suggestions on how to proceed?










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  • Since we don't know $c_1<1$, it might not be possible to show such $lambda$ exists. The easier way to deal with this problem is to define a sequence by letting $x_0$ to be arbitrary and $x_n+1=f(x_n)$. Then show the sequence is Cauchy using the hypothesis.
    – Marco
    Aug 31 at 0:10










  • Got it, thanks!
    – Mike D
    Aug 31 at 0:16














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












This is a practice problem for an exam I am taking.



Let $(X,rho )$ be a complete metric space and $f: X rightarrow X$ a function. Writing $f^n$ for the $n$-th iterate of $f$, denote



$$c_n := sup_x,y in X, x neq y fracrho(f^n(x),f^n(y))rho(x,y).$$



Assuming that $Sigma _n=1^infty c_n < infty $, prove that $f$ has a unique fixed point in $X$.



Since we are dealing with a complete metric space, I only need to show that $f$ is a contraction mapping. I know that given $x$ and $y$ in $X$,



$$ rho(f^n(x),f^n(y)) leq c_n rho(x,y).$$



Ultimately , I want to find some $lambda < 1$ such that $rho(f(x),f(y)) leq lambda rho(x,y).$ Any suggestions on how to proceed?










share|cite|improve this question





















  • Since we don't know $c_1<1$, it might not be possible to show such $lambda$ exists. The easier way to deal with this problem is to define a sequence by letting $x_0$ to be arbitrary and $x_n+1=f(x_n)$. Then show the sequence is Cauchy using the hypothesis.
    – Marco
    Aug 31 at 0:10










  • Got it, thanks!
    – Mike D
    Aug 31 at 0:16












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











This is a practice problem for an exam I am taking.



Let $(X,rho )$ be a complete metric space and $f: X rightarrow X$ a function. Writing $f^n$ for the $n$-th iterate of $f$, denote



$$c_n := sup_x,y in X, x neq y fracrho(f^n(x),f^n(y))rho(x,y).$$



Assuming that $Sigma _n=1^infty c_n < infty $, prove that $f$ has a unique fixed point in $X$.



Since we are dealing with a complete metric space, I only need to show that $f$ is a contraction mapping. I know that given $x$ and $y$ in $X$,



$$ rho(f^n(x),f^n(y)) leq c_n rho(x,y).$$



Ultimately , I want to find some $lambda < 1$ such that $rho(f(x),f(y)) leq lambda rho(x,y).$ Any suggestions on how to proceed?










share|cite|improve this question













This is a practice problem for an exam I am taking.



Let $(X,rho )$ be a complete metric space and $f: X rightarrow X$ a function. Writing $f^n$ for the $n$-th iterate of $f$, denote



$$c_n := sup_x,y in X, x neq y fracrho(f^n(x),f^n(y))rho(x,y).$$



Assuming that $Sigma _n=1^infty c_n < infty $, prove that $f$ has a unique fixed point in $X$.



Since we are dealing with a complete metric space, I only need to show that $f$ is a contraction mapping. I know that given $x$ and $y$ in $X$,



$$ rho(f^n(x),f^n(y)) leq c_n rho(x,y).$$



Ultimately , I want to find some $lambda < 1$ such that $rho(f(x),f(y)) leq lambda rho(x,y).$ Any suggestions on how to proceed?







real-analysis fixed-point-theorems






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asked Aug 31 at 0:03









Mike D

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  • Since we don't know $c_1<1$, it might not be possible to show such $lambda$ exists. The easier way to deal with this problem is to define a sequence by letting $x_0$ to be arbitrary and $x_n+1=f(x_n)$. Then show the sequence is Cauchy using the hypothesis.
    – Marco
    Aug 31 at 0:10










  • Got it, thanks!
    – Mike D
    Aug 31 at 0:16
















  • Since we don't know $c_1<1$, it might not be possible to show such $lambda$ exists. The easier way to deal with this problem is to define a sequence by letting $x_0$ to be arbitrary and $x_n+1=f(x_n)$. Then show the sequence is Cauchy using the hypothesis.
    – Marco
    Aug 31 at 0:10










  • Got it, thanks!
    – Mike D
    Aug 31 at 0:16















Since we don't know $c_1<1$, it might not be possible to show such $lambda$ exists. The easier way to deal with this problem is to define a sequence by letting $x_0$ to be arbitrary and $x_n+1=f(x_n)$. Then show the sequence is Cauchy using the hypothesis.
– Marco
Aug 31 at 0:10




Since we don't know $c_1<1$, it might not be possible to show such $lambda$ exists. The easier way to deal with this problem is to define a sequence by letting $x_0$ to be arbitrary and $x_n+1=f(x_n)$. Then show the sequence is Cauchy using the hypothesis.
– Marco
Aug 31 at 0:10












Got it, thanks!
– Mike D
Aug 31 at 0:16




Got it, thanks!
– Mike D
Aug 31 at 0:16










1 Answer
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So if $sum_nc_n<+infty$, $c_nundersetninftyrightarrow0$ so there exists a $ninmathbfN$ such that $c_n<1$. So there exists $ninmathbfN$ such that $f^n$ is a contraction. So by the fixed-point theorem, $f^n$ has an unique fixed-point $x$.



Because $f^n+1(x)=f^nbig(f(x)big)=fbig(f^n(x)big)=f(x)$, we conclude that $f(x)$ is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so by unicity $f(x)=x$ and hence $f$ has a fixed-point. Unicity comes from the fact if $y$ is another fixed point of $f$, it is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so $y=x$.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

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    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    So if $sum_nc_n<+infty$, $c_nundersetninftyrightarrow0$ so there exists a $ninmathbfN$ such that $c_n<1$. So there exists $ninmathbfN$ such that $f^n$ is a contraction. So by the fixed-point theorem, $f^n$ has an unique fixed-point $x$.



    Because $f^n+1(x)=f^nbig(f(x)big)=fbig(f^n(x)big)=f(x)$, we conclude that $f(x)$ is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so by unicity $f(x)=x$ and hence $f$ has a fixed-point. Unicity comes from the fact if $y$ is another fixed point of $f$, it is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so $y=x$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      So if $sum_nc_n<+infty$, $c_nundersetninftyrightarrow0$ so there exists a $ninmathbfN$ such that $c_n<1$. So there exists $ninmathbfN$ such that $f^n$ is a contraction. So by the fixed-point theorem, $f^n$ has an unique fixed-point $x$.



      Because $f^n+1(x)=f^nbig(f(x)big)=fbig(f^n(x)big)=f(x)$, we conclude that $f(x)$ is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so by unicity $f(x)=x$ and hence $f$ has a fixed-point. Unicity comes from the fact if $y$ is another fixed point of $f$, it is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so $y=x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        So if $sum_nc_n<+infty$, $c_nundersetninftyrightarrow0$ so there exists a $ninmathbfN$ such that $c_n<1$. So there exists $ninmathbfN$ such that $f^n$ is a contraction. So by the fixed-point theorem, $f^n$ has an unique fixed-point $x$.



        Because $f^n+1(x)=f^nbig(f(x)big)=fbig(f^n(x)big)=f(x)$, we conclude that $f(x)$ is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so by unicity $f(x)=x$ and hence $f$ has a fixed-point. Unicity comes from the fact if $y$ is another fixed point of $f$, it is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so $y=x$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        So if $sum_nc_n<+infty$, $c_nundersetninftyrightarrow0$ so there exists a $ninmathbfN$ such that $c_n<1$. So there exists $ninmathbfN$ such that $f^n$ is a contraction. So by the fixed-point theorem, $f^n$ has an unique fixed-point $x$.



        Because $f^n+1(x)=f^nbig(f(x)big)=fbig(f^n(x)big)=f(x)$, we conclude that $f(x)$ is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so by unicity $f(x)=x$ and hence $f$ has a fixed-point. Unicity comes from the fact if $y$ is another fixed point of $f$, it is also a fixed-point of $f^n$ so $y=x$.







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        answered Aug 31 at 0:18









        BlueCharlie

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