What does the graph of $f(x)$ look like if $fbig(f(x)big) = ln(x)$? [closed]

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Best of all I would like the Taylor series of $f(x)$.







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closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris Aug 27 at 14:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • Do you want $f$ to be continuous on $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 13:55










  • Similar and recent (but also closed): math.stackexchange.com/questions/2885532/…
    – Hans Lundmark
    Aug 27 at 14:14















up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1












Best of all I would like the Taylor series of $f(x)$.







share|cite|improve this question














closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris Aug 27 at 14:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • Do you want $f$ to be continuous on $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 13:55










  • Similar and recent (but also closed): math.stackexchange.com/questions/2885532/…
    – Hans Lundmark
    Aug 27 at 14:14













up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
0
down vote

favorite
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1





Best of all I would like the Taylor series of $f(x)$.







share|cite|improve this question














Best of all I would like the Taylor series of $f(x)$.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 27 at 14:28









Bill Wallis

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asked Aug 27 at 13:38









H. Tomasz Grzybowski

523




523




closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris Aug 27 at 14:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris Aug 27 at 14:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – José Carlos Santos, Siong Thye Goh, Adrian Keister, amWhy, Connor Harris
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.











  • Do you want $f$ to be continuous on $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 13:55










  • Similar and recent (but also closed): math.stackexchange.com/questions/2885532/…
    – Hans Lundmark
    Aug 27 at 14:14

















  • Do you want $f$ to be continuous on $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 13:55










  • Similar and recent (but also closed): math.stackexchange.com/questions/2885532/…
    – Hans Lundmark
    Aug 27 at 14:14
















Do you want $f$ to be continuous on $(0,infty)$?
– Marco
Aug 27 at 13:55




Do you want $f$ to be continuous on $(0,infty)$?
– Marco
Aug 27 at 13:55












Similar and recent (but also closed): math.stackexchange.com/questions/2885532/…
– Hans Lundmark
Aug 27 at 14:14





Similar and recent (but also closed): math.stackexchange.com/questions/2885532/…
– Hans Lundmark
Aug 27 at 14:14











1 Answer
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Such a continuous function does not exist. First note that $f$ is one-to-one, since if $f(x)=f(y)$, then $f(f(x))=f(f(y))$ and so $x=y$. Then either $f$ is increasing or decreasing on its entire domain $(0,infty)$. Since the range of $ln(x)$ is $mathbbR$, the range of $f$ must be $mathbbR$ as well. If $f$ was decreasing, then $f$ would have to have a fixed point $f(x)=x$ but then $x=f(f(x))=ln(x)$ which is impossible. So $f$ must be increasing on $(0,infty)$ and $lim_x rightarrow 0^+f(x)=-infty$. This is a contradiction, since for $x$ close enough to 0 the quantity $f(f(x))$ would be undefined ($f(x)<0$ there).






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  • 1




    Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
    – Ivan Neretin
    Aug 27 at 14:05










  • Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 27 at 16:50











  • Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 17:08










  • Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 28 at 20:22











  • Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 28 at 20:33

















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote













Such a continuous function does not exist. First note that $f$ is one-to-one, since if $f(x)=f(y)$, then $f(f(x))=f(f(y))$ and so $x=y$. Then either $f$ is increasing or decreasing on its entire domain $(0,infty)$. Since the range of $ln(x)$ is $mathbbR$, the range of $f$ must be $mathbbR$ as well. If $f$ was decreasing, then $f$ would have to have a fixed point $f(x)=x$ but then $x=f(f(x))=ln(x)$ which is impossible. So $f$ must be increasing on $(0,infty)$ and $lim_x rightarrow 0^+f(x)=-infty$. This is a contradiction, since for $x$ close enough to 0 the quantity $f(f(x))$ would be undefined ($f(x)<0$ there).






share|cite|improve this answer
















  • 1




    Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
    – Ivan Neretin
    Aug 27 at 14:05










  • Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 27 at 16:50











  • Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 17:08










  • Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 28 at 20:22











  • Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 28 at 20:33














up vote
2
down vote













Such a continuous function does not exist. First note that $f$ is one-to-one, since if $f(x)=f(y)$, then $f(f(x))=f(f(y))$ and so $x=y$. Then either $f$ is increasing or decreasing on its entire domain $(0,infty)$. Since the range of $ln(x)$ is $mathbbR$, the range of $f$ must be $mathbbR$ as well. If $f$ was decreasing, then $f$ would have to have a fixed point $f(x)=x$ but then $x=f(f(x))=ln(x)$ which is impossible. So $f$ must be increasing on $(0,infty)$ and $lim_x rightarrow 0^+f(x)=-infty$. This is a contradiction, since for $x$ close enough to 0 the quantity $f(f(x))$ would be undefined ($f(x)<0$ there).






share|cite|improve this answer
















  • 1




    Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
    – Ivan Neretin
    Aug 27 at 14:05










  • Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 27 at 16:50











  • Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 17:08










  • Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 28 at 20:22











  • Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 28 at 20:33












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









Such a continuous function does not exist. First note that $f$ is one-to-one, since if $f(x)=f(y)$, then $f(f(x))=f(f(y))$ and so $x=y$. Then either $f$ is increasing or decreasing on its entire domain $(0,infty)$. Since the range of $ln(x)$ is $mathbbR$, the range of $f$ must be $mathbbR$ as well. If $f$ was decreasing, then $f$ would have to have a fixed point $f(x)=x$ but then $x=f(f(x))=ln(x)$ which is impossible. So $f$ must be increasing on $(0,infty)$ and $lim_x rightarrow 0^+f(x)=-infty$. This is a contradiction, since for $x$ close enough to 0 the quantity $f(f(x))$ would be undefined ($f(x)<0$ there).






share|cite|improve this answer












Such a continuous function does not exist. First note that $f$ is one-to-one, since if $f(x)=f(y)$, then $f(f(x))=f(f(y))$ and so $x=y$. Then either $f$ is increasing or decreasing on its entire domain $(0,infty)$. Since the range of $ln(x)$ is $mathbbR$, the range of $f$ must be $mathbbR$ as well. If $f$ was decreasing, then $f$ would have to have a fixed point $f(x)=x$ but then $x=f(f(x))=ln(x)$ which is impossible. So $f$ must be increasing on $(0,infty)$ and $lim_x rightarrow 0^+f(x)=-infty$. This is a contradiction, since for $x$ close enough to 0 the quantity $f(f(x))$ would be undefined ($f(x)<0$ there).







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 27 at 14:01









Marco

1,55917




1,55917







  • 1




    Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
    – Ivan Neretin
    Aug 27 at 14:05










  • Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 27 at 16:50











  • Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 17:08










  • Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 28 at 20:22











  • Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 28 at 20:33












  • 1




    Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
    – Ivan Neretin
    Aug 27 at 14:05










  • Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 27 at 16:50











  • Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
    – Marco
    Aug 27 at 17:08










  • Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
    – H. Tomasz Grzybowski
    Aug 28 at 20:22











  • Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
    – Marco
    Aug 28 at 20:33







1




1




Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
– Ivan Neretin
Aug 27 at 14:05




Who said the domain is $(0,infty)$?
– Ivan Neretin
Aug 27 at 14:05












Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
– H. Tomasz Grzybowski
Aug 27 at 16:50





Marco: f(0) = a < 0 and lim f(x) = minus infinity as x -> a. There is an analytic f(.) satisfying f(f(x))= ln(x).
– H. Tomasz Grzybowski
Aug 27 at 16:50













Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
– Marco
Aug 27 at 17:08




Tomasz, but then $f(f(0))=ln(0)$? The OP is not clear for what $x$ the identity is supposed to hold so I assume the domain is $(0,infty)$.
– Marco
Aug 27 at 17:08












Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
– H. Tomasz Grzybowski
Aug 28 at 20:22





Marco: The domain is (0, infinity). f(f(0)) does not exist, even though f(0) = a, because f(a) does not exist, only the limit as x -> a, f(x) -> minus infinity.
– H. Tomasz Grzybowski
Aug 28 at 20:22













Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
– Marco
Aug 28 at 20:33




Tomasz, you are right about that, but going back to your previous comment if $f(0)=a$, knowing that $f(x)$ is increasing, this would mean that the range of $f(x)$ is $(a,infty)$. Wouldn't this mean the domain is not $(0,infty)$?
– Marco
Aug 28 at 20:33


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