If $fraclog xy - z = fraclog yz - x = fraclog zx - y$, prove that $xyz = 1$ without using the following method

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If



$$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
prove that $$xyz = 1
$$.



without using this method :-



$$
mboxLet fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y = k\
mboxthis gives three equations :-\
mbox1.log x = k(y -z)\
mbox2.log y = k(z - x)\
mbox3.log z = k(x - y)\
mboxAdding eq. 1, 2 and 3, we get\
log x + log y + log z = k(y - z) + k(z-x)+k(x-y)\
implies log xyz = ky - kz + kz - kx + kx - ky\
implies log xyz = 0\
implies log xyz = log 1\
implies xyz = 1\
mbox(which is the required proof)
$$



I am trying my best but not able to do it.







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  • 1




    It's kind of a very bad question if someone asks you to do it, but not in the obvious and shortest and most sensible way. Why bother to answer such a thing, you have given a fine proof.
    – Luke
    Aug 27 at 14:57










  • @Luke I want to know if there's any other way of proving this.
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 14:59











  • Every other method is very similar, I'd expect. I've written something down using the componendo rule : on paper , it seems very different to your proof, but it really is the same. Can I post this?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 27 at 14:59










  • астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг Yes
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 15:01










  • Do not repost questions that were put on hold, especially not without substantive modification. Instead edit the post to improve it.
    – quid♦
    Aug 27 at 15:12















up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1












If



$$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
prove that $$xyz = 1
$$.



without using this method :-



$$
mboxLet fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y = k\
mboxthis gives three equations :-\
mbox1.log x = k(y -z)\
mbox2.log y = k(z - x)\
mbox3.log z = k(x - y)\
mboxAdding eq. 1, 2 and 3, we get\
log x + log y + log z = k(y - z) + k(z-x)+k(x-y)\
implies log xyz = ky - kz + kz - kx + kx - ky\
implies log xyz = 0\
implies log xyz = log 1\
implies xyz = 1\
mbox(which is the required proof)
$$



I am trying my best but not able to do it.







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 1




    It's kind of a very bad question if someone asks you to do it, but not in the obvious and shortest and most sensible way. Why bother to answer such a thing, you have given a fine proof.
    – Luke
    Aug 27 at 14:57










  • @Luke I want to know if there's any other way of proving this.
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 14:59











  • Every other method is very similar, I'd expect. I've written something down using the componendo rule : on paper , it seems very different to your proof, but it really is the same. Can I post this?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 27 at 14:59










  • астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг Yes
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 15:01










  • Do not repost questions that were put on hold, especially not without substantive modification. Instead edit the post to improve it.
    – quid♦
    Aug 27 at 15:12













up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
1
down vote

favorite
1






1





If



$$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
prove that $$xyz = 1
$$.



without using this method :-



$$
mboxLet fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y = k\
mboxthis gives three equations :-\
mbox1.log x = k(y -z)\
mbox2.log y = k(z - x)\
mbox3.log z = k(x - y)\
mboxAdding eq. 1, 2 and 3, we get\
log x + log y + log z = k(y - z) + k(z-x)+k(x-y)\
implies log xyz = ky - kz + kz - kx + kx - ky\
implies log xyz = 0\
implies log xyz = log 1\
implies xyz = 1\
mbox(which is the required proof)
$$



I am trying my best but not able to do it.







share|cite|improve this question












If



$$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
prove that $$xyz = 1
$$.



without using this method :-



$$
mboxLet fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y = k\
mboxthis gives three equations :-\
mbox1.log x = k(y -z)\
mbox2.log y = k(z - x)\
mbox3.log z = k(x - y)\
mboxAdding eq. 1, 2 and 3, we get\
log x + log y + log z = k(y - z) + k(z-x)+k(x-y)\
implies log xyz = ky - kz + kz - kx + kx - ky\
implies log xyz = 0\
implies log xyz = log 1\
implies xyz = 1\
mbox(which is the required proof)
$$



I am trying my best but not able to do it.









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share|cite|improve this question




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asked Aug 27 at 14:46









arandomguy

14617




14617







  • 1




    It's kind of a very bad question if someone asks you to do it, but not in the obvious and shortest and most sensible way. Why bother to answer such a thing, you have given a fine proof.
    – Luke
    Aug 27 at 14:57










  • @Luke I want to know if there's any other way of proving this.
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 14:59











  • Every other method is very similar, I'd expect. I've written something down using the componendo rule : on paper , it seems very different to your proof, but it really is the same. Can I post this?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 27 at 14:59










  • астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг Yes
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 15:01










  • Do not repost questions that were put on hold, especially not without substantive modification. Instead edit the post to improve it.
    – quid♦
    Aug 27 at 15:12













  • 1




    It's kind of a very bad question if someone asks you to do it, but not in the obvious and shortest and most sensible way. Why bother to answer such a thing, you have given a fine proof.
    – Luke
    Aug 27 at 14:57










  • @Luke I want to know if there's any other way of proving this.
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 14:59











  • Every other method is very similar, I'd expect. I've written something down using the componendo rule : on paper , it seems very different to your proof, but it really is the same. Can I post this?
    – Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Aug 27 at 14:59










  • астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг Yes
    – arandomguy
    Aug 27 at 15:01










  • Do not repost questions that were put on hold, especially not without substantive modification. Instead edit the post to improve it.
    – quid♦
    Aug 27 at 15:12








1




1




It's kind of a very bad question if someone asks you to do it, but not in the obvious and shortest and most sensible way. Why bother to answer such a thing, you have given a fine proof.
– Luke
Aug 27 at 14:57




It's kind of a very bad question if someone asks you to do it, but not in the obvious and shortest and most sensible way. Why bother to answer such a thing, you have given a fine proof.
– Luke
Aug 27 at 14:57












@Luke I want to know if there's any other way of proving this.
– arandomguy
Aug 27 at 14:59





@Luke I want to know if there's any other way of proving this.
– arandomguy
Aug 27 at 14:59













Every other method is very similar, I'd expect. I've written something down using the componendo rule : on paper , it seems very different to your proof, but it really is the same. Can I post this?
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 27 at 14:59




Every other method is very similar, I'd expect. I've written something down using the componendo rule : on paper , it seems very different to your proof, but it really is the same. Can I post this?
– Ð°ÑÑ‚он вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Aug 27 at 14:59












астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг Yes
– arandomguy
Aug 27 at 15:01




астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг Yes
– arandomguy
Aug 27 at 15:01












Do not repost questions that were put on hold, especially not without substantive modification. Instead edit the post to improve it.
– quid♦
Aug 27 at 15:12





Do not repost questions that were put on hold, especially not without substantive modification. Instead edit the post to improve it.
– quid♦
Aug 27 at 15:12











2 Answers
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$$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x$$



Implies
$$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x=fraclog x+log y(y-z)+(z-x)$$



Therefore
$$fraclog xyy-x)= fraclog zx-y= frac-log zy-x
Rightarrow \
log xy = -log z Rightarrow \
log xyz =0$$






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote














    Note: I'm assuming that the equation is to be interpreted as equation of real values, and using the logarithm as real-valued function.




    The equation
    $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
    has no solution, therefore any statement about its solutions is vacuously true, including the statement that $xyz=1$.



    Proof that there is no solution to this equation:



    First, we see that all of $x,y,z$ must be positive, as otherwise the logarithm is not defined. Moreover, no two of those values can be equal, otherwise we would have a division by zero, which again is not defined. Moreover, none of them can equal to $1$, as then the logarithm would be zero and thus the other two logarithms would need to be zero, too, in contradiction to all three values being different.



    Now we notice that the equation is invariant under cyclic permutation of $(x,y,z)$. Therefore we can without loss of generality assume that $x$ is the largest of the three.



    Then $z-x$ is negative, and $x-y$ is positive. This means that exactly one of $y$ and $z$ must be larger than $1$. Since $x$ is by assumption the largest number, this implies that $x>1$ as well.



    Now we have either $y>z$ or $y<z$. If $y>z$, then $fraclog xy-z>0$. On the other hand, it implies $y>1$, which in turn implies $fraclog yz-x<0$. Obviously it is not possible that a positive value equals a negative value.



    If $y<z$, then $fraclog xy-z<0$. But then $y<1$, and thus $fraclog yz-x>0$. Again, this is not possible.



    Thus for any solution, we have neither $y=z$ nor $y>z$ nor $y<z$. Therefore no solution exists. $square$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      active

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      up vote
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      $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x$$



      Implies
      $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x=fraclog x+log y(y-z)+(z-x)$$



      Therefore
      $$fraclog xyy-x)= fraclog zx-y= frac-log zy-x
      Rightarrow \
      log xy = -log z Rightarrow \
      log xyz =0$$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x$$



        Implies
        $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x=fraclog x+log y(y-z)+(z-x)$$



        Therefore
        $$fraclog xyy-x)= fraclog zx-y= frac-log zy-x
        Rightarrow \
        log xy = -log z Rightarrow \
        log xyz =0$$






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x$$



          Implies
          $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x=fraclog x+log y(y-z)+(z-x)$$



          Therefore
          $$fraclog xyy-x)= fraclog zx-y= frac-log zy-x
          Rightarrow \
          log xy = -log z Rightarrow \
          log xyz =0$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x$$



          Implies
          $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x=fraclog x+log y(y-z)+(z-x)$$



          Therefore
          $$fraclog xyy-x)= fraclog zx-y= frac-log zy-x
          Rightarrow \
          log xy = -log z Rightarrow \
          log xyz =0$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 27 at 15:25









          N. S.

          98.5k5106197




          98.5k5106197




















              up vote
              1
              down vote














              Note: I'm assuming that the equation is to be interpreted as equation of real values, and using the logarithm as real-valued function.




              The equation
              $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
              has no solution, therefore any statement about its solutions is vacuously true, including the statement that $xyz=1$.



              Proof that there is no solution to this equation:



              First, we see that all of $x,y,z$ must be positive, as otherwise the logarithm is not defined. Moreover, no two of those values can be equal, otherwise we would have a division by zero, which again is not defined. Moreover, none of them can equal to $1$, as then the logarithm would be zero and thus the other two logarithms would need to be zero, too, in contradiction to all three values being different.



              Now we notice that the equation is invariant under cyclic permutation of $(x,y,z)$. Therefore we can without loss of generality assume that $x$ is the largest of the three.



              Then $z-x$ is negative, and $x-y$ is positive. This means that exactly one of $y$ and $z$ must be larger than $1$. Since $x$ is by assumption the largest number, this implies that $x>1$ as well.



              Now we have either $y>z$ or $y<z$. If $y>z$, then $fraclog xy-z>0$. On the other hand, it implies $y>1$, which in turn implies $fraclog yz-x<0$. Obviously it is not possible that a positive value equals a negative value.



              If $y<z$, then $fraclog xy-z<0$. But then $y<1$, and thus $fraclog yz-x>0$. Again, this is not possible.



              Thus for any solution, we have neither $y=z$ nor $y>z$ nor $y<z$. Therefore no solution exists. $square$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote














                Note: I'm assuming that the equation is to be interpreted as equation of real values, and using the logarithm as real-valued function.




                The equation
                $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
                has no solution, therefore any statement about its solutions is vacuously true, including the statement that $xyz=1$.



                Proof that there is no solution to this equation:



                First, we see that all of $x,y,z$ must be positive, as otherwise the logarithm is not defined. Moreover, no two of those values can be equal, otherwise we would have a division by zero, which again is not defined. Moreover, none of them can equal to $1$, as then the logarithm would be zero and thus the other two logarithms would need to be zero, too, in contradiction to all three values being different.



                Now we notice that the equation is invariant under cyclic permutation of $(x,y,z)$. Therefore we can without loss of generality assume that $x$ is the largest of the three.



                Then $z-x$ is negative, and $x-y$ is positive. This means that exactly one of $y$ and $z$ must be larger than $1$. Since $x$ is by assumption the largest number, this implies that $x>1$ as well.



                Now we have either $y>z$ or $y<z$. If $y>z$, then $fraclog xy-z>0$. On the other hand, it implies $y>1$, which in turn implies $fraclog yz-x<0$. Obviously it is not possible that a positive value equals a negative value.



                If $y<z$, then $fraclog xy-z<0$. But then $y<1$, and thus $fraclog yz-x>0$. Again, this is not possible.



                Thus for any solution, we have neither $y=z$ nor $y>z$ nor $y<z$. Therefore no solution exists. $square$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  Note: I'm assuming that the equation is to be interpreted as equation of real values, and using the logarithm as real-valued function.




                  The equation
                  $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
                  has no solution, therefore any statement about its solutions is vacuously true, including the statement that $xyz=1$.



                  Proof that there is no solution to this equation:



                  First, we see that all of $x,y,z$ must be positive, as otherwise the logarithm is not defined. Moreover, no two of those values can be equal, otherwise we would have a division by zero, which again is not defined. Moreover, none of them can equal to $1$, as then the logarithm would be zero and thus the other two logarithms would need to be zero, too, in contradiction to all three values being different.



                  Now we notice that the equation is invariant under cyclic permutation of $(x,y,z)$. Therefore we can without loss of generality assume that $x$ is the largest of the three.



                  Then $z-x$ is negative, and $x-y$ is positive. This means that exactly one of $y$ and $z$ must be larger than $1$. Since $x$ is by assumption the largest number, this implies that $x>1$ as well.



                  Now we have either $y>z$ or $y<z$. If $y>z$, then $fraclog xy-z>0$. On the other hand, it implies $y>1$, which in turn implies $fraclog yz-x<0$. Obviously it is not possible that a positive value equals a negative value.



                  If $y<z$, then $fraclog xy-z<0$. But then $y<1$, and thus $fraclog yz-x>0$. Again, this is not possible.



                  Thus for any solution, we have neither $y=z$ nor $y>z$ nor $y<z$. Therefore no solution exists. $square$






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Note: I'm assuming that the equation is to be interpreted as equation of real values, and using the logarithm as real-valued function.




                  The equation
                  $$fraclog xy-z = fraclog yz-x = fraclog zx-y$$
                  has no solution, therefore any statement about its solutions is vacuously true, including the statement that $xyz=1$.



                  Proof that there is no solution to this equation:



                  First, we see that all of $x,y,z$ must be positive, as otherwise the logarithm is not defined. Moreover, no two of those values can be equal, otherwise we would have a division by zero, which again is not defined. Moreover, none of them can equal to $1$, as then the logarithm would be zero and thus the other two logarithms would need to be zero, too, in contradiction to all three values being different.



                  Now we notice that the equation is invariant under cyclic permutation of $(x,y,z)$. Therefore we can without loss of generality assume that $x$ is the largest of the three.



                  Then $z-x$ is negative, and $x-y$ is positive. This means that exactly one of $y$ and $z$ must be larger than $1$. Since $x$ is by assumption the largest number, this implies that $x>1$ as well.



                  Now we have either $y>z$ or $y<z$. If $y>z$, then $fraclog xy-z>0$. On the other hand, it implies $y>1$, which in turn implies $fraclog yz-x<0$. Obviously it is not possible that a positive value equals a negative value.



                  If $y<z$, then $fraclog xy-z<0$. But then $y<1$, and thus $fraclog yz-x>0$. Again, this is not possible.



                  Thus for any solution, we have neither $y=z$ nor $y>z$ nor $y<z$. Therefore no solution exists. $square$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 27 at 16:13









                  celtschk

                  28.5k75496




                  28.5k75496



























                       

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