$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac12 = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x)$

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Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$




I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$




and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$




My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").




I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:07











  • Use squeeze theorem.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:08










  • @xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:15










  • @xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:17














up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1













Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$




I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$




and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$




My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").




I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:07











  • Use squeeze theorem.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:08










  • @xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:15










  • @xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:17












up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1






1






Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$




I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$




and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$




My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").




I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.







share|cite|improve this question















Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$




I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$




and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then




$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$




My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").




I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 13 at 4:18

























asked Aug 13 at 4:01









Lucas Corrêa

1,173319




1,173319











  • Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:07











  • Use squeeze theorem.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:08










  • @xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:15










  • @xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:17
















  • Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:07











  • Use squeeze theorem.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:08










  • @xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:15










  • @xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
    – Lucas Corrêa
    Aug 13 at 4:17















Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07





Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07













Use squeeze theorem.
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08




Use squeeze theorem.
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08












@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
– Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15




@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
– Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15












@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
– Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17




@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
– Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17










1 Answer
1






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oldest

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up vote
3
down vote



accepted










Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$



Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • @RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:43











  • Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
    – marty cohen
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • @RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:50










  • @xbh: Not a problem.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:52










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
3
down vote



accepted










Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$



Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • @RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:43











  • Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
    – marty cohen
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • @RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:50










  • @xbh: Not a problem.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:52














up vote
3
down vote



accepted










Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$



Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • @RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:43











  • Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
    – marty cohen
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • @RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:50










  • @xbh: Not a problem.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:52












up vote
3
down vote



accepted







up vote
3
down vote



accepted






Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$



Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$






share|cite|improve this answer












Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$



Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 13 at 4:37









xbh

1,957110




1,957110











  • @RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:43











  • Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
    – marty cohen
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • @RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:50










  • @xbh: Not a problem.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:52
















  • @RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:43











  • Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
    – marty cohen
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:47










  • @RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
    – xbh
    Aug 13 at 4:50










  • @xbh: Not a problem.
    – RRL
    Aug 13 at 4:52















@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43





@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43













Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
– marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47




Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
– marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47












That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
– RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47




That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
– RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47












@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50




@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
– xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50












@xbh: Not a problem.
– RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52




@xbh: Not a problem.
– RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52












 

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