$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac12 = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x)$

Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$
I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$
and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$
My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").
I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.
real-analysis integration norm
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$
I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$
and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$
My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").
I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.
real-analysis integration norm
Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07
Use squeeze theorem.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08
@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15
@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$
I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$
and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$
My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").
I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.
real-analysis integration norm
Problem. Let $phi: [a,b] to mathbbR$ continous and $alpha:[a,b] to mathbbR$ strictly increasing. Show that
$$lim_n to inftyleft(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = sup_a leq x leq b phi^2(x).$$
I never solved such a question, it seems very confusing to me. I know that
$$Vert f Vert_p = left(int_a^b|f(x)|^pmathrmdxright)^frac1p$$
defines norm in $V$ (where $V$ is a space of continuous functions). So, we can write
$$left(int_a^bphi^2nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = left(int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha right)^frac1n = Vert phi^2 Vert_n.$$
Thus, the problem is reduced to
$$lim_n to inftyVert phi^2 Vert_n = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty tag*label*$$
where $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x) : x in [a,b]$.
Now
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_n^n = int_a^b|phi^2|^nmathrmd alpha leq int_a^bVert phi^2 Vert_infty^nmathrmdalpha = Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^nint_a^bmathrmdalpha = cdots$$
and $Vert phi^2 Vert_infty = phi^2(x_0)$, then
$$Vert phi^2 Vert_infty^n = phi^2(x_0)^n leq cdots$$
My ideia is to show that
$$f_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty leq Vert phi^2 Vert_n leq g_nVert phi^2 Vert_infty$$
where $f_n, g_n to 1$ when $n to infty$, but I couldn't find these functions (to solve "$cdots$").
I proved (*) for norm in $mathbbR^n$, but it was simpler. It may be that I'm completely wrong, anyway, I would like help.
real-analysis integration norm
edited Aug 13 at 4:18
asked Aug 13 at 4:01
Lucas Corrêa
1,173319
1,173319
Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07
Use squeeze theorem.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08
@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15
@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17
add a comment |Â
Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07
Use squeeze theorem.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08
@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15
@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17
Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07
Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07
Use squeeze theorem.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08
Use squeeze theorem.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08
@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15
@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15
@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17
@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$
Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$
Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$
Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$
Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$
Proof. $blacktriangleleft$ By the continuity of $varphi$ on $[a,b]$, the supremum can be attained in the interval. Denote the maximum i.e. supremum by $M$. Then
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant left(int_a^b M^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 left(int_a^b mathrm d alpha right)^1/n = M^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to M^2 [n to infty].
$$
Since $M$ could be attained on $[a,b]$, by continuity for all $varepsilon > 0$ there is a subinterval $[c,d] subseteq [a,b]$ s.t. $varphi(x) > M - varepsilon$ on $[c,d]$. Therefore,
$$
left(int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant left(int_c^d varphi^2n mathrm d alpha right)^1/n geqslant (M - varepsilon)^2 (alpha(b) - alpha(a))^1/n to (M - varepsilon)^2 [n to infty].
$$
Therefore,
$$
forall varepsilon >0, (M - varepsilon)^2 leqslant underline lim left( int_a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant overline lim left( int _a^b varphi^2n mathrm d alpharight)^1/n leqslant M^2.
$$
Therefore the limit exists and equals $M^2$. $blacktriangleright$
answered Aug 13 at 4:37
xbh
1,957110
1,957110
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
add a comment |Â
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
@RRL Sorry about this. I took too long on typing, and I didn't see your hint at first. My bad.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:43
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
Not bad at all. IMO, independent answers are always acceptable.
â marty cohen
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
That's understandable. Its a good answer so I'll give it an upvote, but I not inclined to fully answer such a question.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:47
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@RRL If you thought i post this after i saw your hint, then you could post your hint and i could delete mine. I do not mind.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:50
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
@xbh: Not a problem.
â RRL
Aug 13 at 4:52
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2880986%2flim-n-to-infty-left-int-ab-phi2n-mathrmd-alpha-right-frac%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Is this a Riemann-Stieltjes integral?
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:07
Use squeeze theorem.
â xbh
Aug 13 at 4:08
@xbh, actually, Riemann-Stieltjes not part of the content, but, by the "appearance" of the integral, it seems that it's really (this question is of old exam, perhaps it has been recently withdrawn from the content). But, would it be possible to solve without using the generalization of integral?
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:15
@xbh My ideia is to use the sequeeze theorem, but I couldn't find $f_ n$ and $g_n$
â Lucas Corrêa
Aug 13 at 4:17