Why is $x+2y+3z=0$ a plane?

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I took this lecture from Sir Denis at OCW about multivariable calculus where he explains vectors and he gives this question at the end of the lecture?



$x+2y+3z = 0$ is a plane.



But I don't really understand why is it a plane, granted the vectors $(x, y, z)$ and $(1, 2, 3)$ are perpendicular as their dot product is $0$ which implies the angle between them is $90^circ$.



But if the angle is $90^circ$, it should be a perpendicular, not a plane.



What am I missing?







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  • 1




    See Equation of the plane : "the equation $ax+by+cz+d=0$ represents a plane having the vector $n = (a, b, c)$ as a normal. This familiar equation for a plane is called the general form of the equation of the plane."
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:39







  • 1




    Probably you miss the fact that the vector $(1,2,3)$ is not in plane but is instead orthogonal to it.
    – user
    Apr 20 at 9:41






  • 1




    And a plane is uniquely determined by its normal.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    @MauroALLEGRANZA okay, from what i can grasp. I think you're saying just like the general equation of a circle in 2d, ax+by+cz+d=0 in 3d is the general equation of a plane and whenever an equation is represented as such, it means that the graph of it will be a plane right?
    – Daksh Miglani
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    Yes; the set of 3D points $(x,y,z)$ that satisfy the equation belong to the plane perpendicular to vector $(a,b,c)$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:49















up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












I took this lecture from Sir Denis at OCW about multivariable calculus where he explains vectors and he gives this question at the end of the lecture?



$x+2y+3z = 0$ is a plane.



But I don't really understand why is it a plane, granted the vectors $(x, y, z)$ and $(1, 2, 3)$ are perpendicular as their dot product is $0$ which implies the angle between them is $90^circ$.



But if the angle is $90^circ$, it should be a perpendicular, not a plane.



What am I missing?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    See Equation of the plane : "the equation $ax+by+cz+d=0$ represents a plane having the vector $n = (a, b, c)$ as a normal. This familiar equation for a plane is called the general form of the equation of the plane."
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:39







  • 1




    Probably you miss the fact that the vector $(1,2,3)$ is not in plane but is instead orthogonal to it.
    – user
    Apr 20 at 9:41






  • 1




    And a plane is uniquely determined by its normal.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    @MauroALLEGRANZA okay, from what i can grasp. I think you're saying just like the general equation of a circle in 2d, ax+by+cz+d=0 in 3d is the general equation of a plane and whenever an equation is represented as such, it means that the graph of it will be a plane right?
    – Daksh Miglani
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    Yes; the set of 3D points $(x,y,z)$ that satisfy the equation belong to the plane perpendicular to vector $(a,b,c)$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:49













up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











I took this lecture from Sir Denis at OCW about multivariable calculus where he explains vectors and he gives this question at the end of the lecture?



$x+2y+3z = 0$ is a plane.



But I don't really understand why is it a plane, granted the vectors $(x, y, z)$ and $(1, 2, 3)$ are perpendicular as their dot product is $0$ which implies the angle between them is $90^circ$.



But if the angle is $90^circ$, it should be a perpendicular, not a plane.



What am I missing?







share|cite|improve this question














I took this lecture from Sir Denis at OCW about multivariable calculus where he explains vectors and he gives this question at the end of the lecture?



$x+2y+3z = 0$ is a plane.



But I don't really understand why is it a plane, granted the vectors $(x, y, z)$ and $(1, 2, 3)$ are perpendicular as their dot product is $0$ which implies the angle between them is $90^circ$.



But if the angle is $90^circ$, it should be a perpendicular, not a plane.



What am I missing?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 13 at 10:56

























asked Apr 20 at 9:37









Daksh Miglani

1227




1227







  • 1




    See Equation of the plane : "the equation $ax+by+cz+d=0$ represents a plane having the vector $n = (a, b, c)$ as a normal. This familiar equation for a plane is called the general form of the equation of the plane."
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:39







  • 1




    Probably you miss the fact that the vector $(1,2,3)$ is not in plane but is instead orthogonal to it.
    – user
    Apr 20 at 9:41






  • 1




    And a plane is uniquely determined by its normal.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    @MauroALLEGRANZA okay, from what i can grasp. I think you're saying just like the general equation of a circle in 2d, ax+by+cz+d=0 in 3d is the general equation of a plane and whenever an equation is represented as such, it means that the graph of it will be a plane right?
    – Daksh Miglani
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    Yes; the set of 3D points $(x,y,z)$ that satisfy the equation belong to the plane perpendicular to vector $(a,b,c)$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:49













  • 1




    See Equation of the plane : "the equation $ax+by+cz+d=0$ represents a plane having the vector $n = (a, b, c)$ as a normal. This familiar equation for a plane is called the general form of the equation of the plane."
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:39







  • 1




    Probably you miss the fact that the vector $(1,2,3)$ is not in plane but is instead orthogonal to it.
    – user
    Apr 20 at 9:41






  • 1




    And a plane is uniquely determined by its normal.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    @MauroALLEGRANZA okay, from what i can grasp. I think you're saying just like the general equation of a circle in 2d, ax+by+cz+d=0 in 3d is the general equation of a plane and whenever an equation is represented as such, it means that the graph of it will be a plane right?
    – Daksh Miglani
    Apr 20 at 9:45






  • 1




    Yes; the set of 3D points $(x,y,z)$ that satisfy the equation belong to the plane perpendicular to vector $(a,b,c)$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Apr 20 at 9:49








1




1




See Equation of the plane : "the equation $ax+by+cz+d=0$ represents a plane having the vector $n = (a, b, c)$ as a normal. This familiar equation for a plane is called the general form of the equation of the plane."
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Apr 20 at 9:39





See Equation of the plane : "the equation $ax+by+cz+d=0$ represents a plane having the vector $n = (a, b, c)$ as a normal. This familiar equation for a plane is called the general form of the equation of the plane."
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Apr 20 at 9:39





1




1




Probably you miss the fact that the vector $(1,2,3)$ is not in plane but is instead orthogonal to it.
– user
Apr 20 at 9:41




Probably you miss the fact that the vector $(1,2,3)$ is not in plane but is instead orthogonal to it.
– user
Apr 20 at 9:41




1




1




And a plane is uniquely determined by its normal.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Apr 20 at 9:45




And a plane is uniquely determined by its normal.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Apr 20 at 9:45




1




1




@MauroALLEGRANZA okay, from what i can grasp. I think you're saying just like the general equation of a circle in 2d, ax+by+cz+d=0 in 3d is the general equation of a plane and whenever an equation is represented as such, it means that the graph of it will be a plane right?
– Daksh Miglani
Apr 20 at 9:45




@MauroALLEGRANZA okay, from what i can grasp. I think you're saying just like the general equation of a circle in 2d, ax+by+cz+d=0 in 3d is the general equation of a plane and whenever an equation is represented as such, it means that the graph of it will be a plane right?
– Daksh Miglani
Apr 20 at 9:45




1




1




Yes; the set of 3D points $(x,y,z)$ that satisfy the equation belong to the plane perpendicular to vector $(a,b,c)$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Apr 20 at 9:49





Yes; the set of 3D points $(x,y,z)$ that satisfy the equation belong to the plane perpendicular to vector $(a,b,c)$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Apr 20 at 9:49











3 Answers
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3
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accepted










It is the set of all vectors (in all directions) which are orthogonal to $(1,2,3)$. Therefore, it's a plane.



For instance, the set of all vectors orthogonal to $(0,0,1)$ is the plane $z=0$.






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    up vote
    2
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    Since $x=-2y-3z$ each point vector $(x,y,z) = y(-2,1,0)+z(-3,0,1)$ in that set is linear combination of vectors $a= (-2,1,0)$ and $b=(-3,0,1)$. So every point in that set is in a plane spanned with these two vectors.






    share|cite|improve this answer





























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      You say "it should be a perpendicular". But a perpendicular to what ?



      The answer is a perpendicular to the vector $(1,2,3)$, which is also a perpendicular to the line of direction $(1,2,3)$, and this is a plane.




      To prove that the locus is not a single line, one can exhibit three points that are not aligned, such as $(0,0,0), (1,1,-1)$ and $(2,-1,0)$. Clearly, the vectors that they form two by two are not proportional to each other.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















      • yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
        – Daksh Miglani
        Apr 20 at 9:48










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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      It is the set of all vectors (in all directions) which are orthogonal to $(1,2,3)$. Therefore, it's a plane.



      For instance, the set of all vectors orthogonal to $(0,0,1)$ is the plane $z=0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted










        It is the set of all vectors (in all directions) which are orthogonal to $(1,2,3)$. Therefore, it's a plane.



        For instance, the set of all vectors orthogonal to $(0,0,1)$ is the plane $z=0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          It is the set of all vectors (in all directions) which are orthogonal to $(1,2,3)$. Therefore, it's a plane.



          For instance, the set of all vectors orthogonal to $(0,0,1)$ is the plane $z=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          It is the set of all vectors (in all directions) which are orthogonal to $(1,2,3)$. Therefore, it's a plane.



          For instance, the set of all vectors orthogonal to $(0,0,1)$ is the plane $z=0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Apr 20 at 9:38









          José Carlos Santos

          116k1699178




          116k1699178




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Since $x=-2y-3z$ each point vector $(x,y,z) = y(-2,1,0)+z(-3,0,1)$ in that set is linear combination of vectors $a= (-2,1,0)$ and $b=(-3,0,1)$. So every point in that set is in a plane spanned with these two vectors.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Since $x=-2y-3z$ each point vector $(x,y,z) = y(-2,1,0)+z(-3,0,1)$ in that set is linear combination of vectors $a= (-2,1,0)$ and $b=(-3,0,1)$. So every point in that set is in a plane spanned with these two vectors.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Since $x=-2y-3z$ each point vector $(x,y,z) = y(-2,1,0)+z(-3,0,1)$ in that set is linear combination of vectors $a= (-2,1,0)$ and $b=(-3,0,1)$. So every point in that set is in a plane spanned with these two vectors.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Since $x=-2y-3z$ each point vector $(x,y,z) = y(-2,1,0)+z(-3,0,1)$ in that set is linear combination of vectors $a= (-2,1,0)$ and $b=(-3,0,1)$. So every point in that set is in a plane spanned with these two vectors.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Apr 20 at 11:35

























                  answered Apr 20 at 9:43









                  greedoid

                  26.8k93575




                  26.8k93575




















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      You say "it should be a perpendicular". But a perpendicular to what ?



                      The answer is a perpendicular to the vector $(1,2,3)$, which is also a perpendicular to the line of direction $(1,2,3)$, and this is a plane.




                      To prove that the locus is not a single line, one can exhibit three points that are not aligned, such as $(0,0,0), (1,1,-1)$ and $(2,-1,0)$. Clearly, the vectors that they form two by two are not proportional to each other.






                      share|cite|improve this answer






















                      • yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
                        – Daksh Miglani
                        Apr 20 at 9:48














                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      You say "it should be a perpendicular". But a perpendicular to what ?



                      The answer is a perpendicular to the vector $(1,2,3)$, which is also a perpendicular to the line of direction $(1,2,3)$, and this is a plane.




                      To prove that the locus is not a single line, one can exhibit three points that are not aligned, such as $(0,0,0), (1,1,-1)$ and $(2,-1,0)$. Clearly, the vectors that they form two by two are not proportional to each other.






                      share|cite|improve this answer






















                      • yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
                        – Daksh Miglani
                        Apr 20 at 9:48












                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote









                      You say "it should be a perpendicular". But a perpendicular to what ?



                      The answer is a perpendicular to the vector $(1,2,3)$, which is also a perpendicular to the line of direction $(1,2,3)$, and this is a plane.




                      To prove that the locus is not a single line, one can exhibit three points that are not aligned, such as $(0,0,0), (1,1,-1)$ and $(2,-1,0)$. Clearly, the vectors that they form two by two are not proportional to each other.






                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      You say "it should be a perpendicular". But a perpendicular to what ?



                      The answer is a perpendicular to the vector $(1,2,3)$, which is also a perpendicular to the line of direction $(1,2,3)$, and this is a plane.




                      To prove that the locus is not a single line, one can exhibit three points that are not aligned, such as $(0,0,0), (1,1,-1)$ and $(2,-1,0)$. Clearly, the vectors that they form two by two are not proportional to each other.







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Apr 20 at 9:53

























                      answered Apr 20 at 9:47









                      Yves Daoust

                      112k665205




                      112k665205











                      • yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
                        – Daksh Miglani
                        Apr 20 at 9:48
















                      • yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
                        – Daksh Miglani
                        Apr 20 at 9:48















                      yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
                      – Daksh Miglani
                      Apr 20 at 9:48




                      yea perpendicular to the vector, correct.
                      – Daksh Miglani
                      Apr 20 at 9:48












                       

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