Relation between $gcd(a, b)$ and $gcd(a+b, operatornamelcm(a, b))$

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I've been trying to figure out a relation between $gcd(a, b)$ and $gcd(a+b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).$ I know
$$
gcd(a, b) | (a+b).
$$
And, since $a | operatornamelcm(a, b)$ I have
$$
gcd(a, b) | operatornamelcm(a, b).
$$
Therefore,
$$
gcd(a, b) leq gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).
$$
I don't know the exact relation but a great deal of problems in my textbook are done as if they are equal. I shall be obliged if someone hints me as to how I shall proceed to establish the equality, if at all exists.







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    up vote
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    down vote

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    I've been trying to figure out a relation between $gcd(a, b)$ and $gcd(a+b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).$ I know
    $$
    gcd(a, b) | (a+b).
    $$
    And, since $a | operatornamelcm(a, b)$ I have
    $$
    gcd(a, b) | operatornamelcm(a, b).
    $$
    Therefore,
    $$
    gcd(a, b) leq gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).
    $$
    I don't know the exact relation but a great deal of problems in my textbook are done as if they are equal. I shall be obliged if someone hints me as to how I shall proceed to establish the equality, if at all exists.







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I've been trying to figure out a relation between $gcd(a, b)$ and $gcd(a+b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).$ I know
      $$
      gcd(a, b) | (a+b).
      $$
      And, since $a | operatornamelcm(a, b)$ I have
      $$
      gcd(a, b) | operatornamelcm(a, b).
      $$
      Therefore,
      $$
      gcd(a, b) leq gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).
      $$
      I don't know the exact relation but a great deal of problems in my textbook are done as if they are equal. I shall be obliged if someone hints me as to how I shall proceed to establish the equality, if at all exists.







      share|cite|improve this question














      I've been trying to figure out a relation between $gcd(a, b)$ and $gcd(a+b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).$ I know
      $$
      gcd(a, b) | (a+b).
      $$
      And, since $a | operatornamelcm(a, b)$ I have
      $$
      gcd(a, b) | operatornamelcm(a, b).
      $$
      Therefore,
      $$
      gcd(a, b) leq gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b)).
      $$
      I don't know the exact relation but a great deal of problems in my textbook are done as if they are equal. I shall be obliged if someone hints me as to how I shall proceed to establish the equality, if at all exists.









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 13 at 5:34









      Henrik

      5,81471930




      5,81471930










      asked Aug 13 at 5:24









      Trdp

      325




      325




















          2 Answers
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          Let $d:=gcd(a,b)$, $a=dm$, and $b=dn$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers (which are relatively prime). Then, $textlcm(a,b)=dmn$. We want to prove that $$d=gcd(a,b)=gcdbig(a+b,textlcm(a,b)big)=gcdbig(d(m+n),dmnbig)=d,gcd(m+n,mn),.$$
          Thus, it suffices to show that $gcd(m+n,mn)=1$. If this were not true, then there would exist a prime $p$ that divides both $m+n$ and $mn$, for which $p$ must divide at least one of $m$ and $n$, but then, as $p$ divides $m+n$, we conclude that $m$ and $n$ are both divisible by $p$, which is absurd, for $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. The claim follows.






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            Suppose $p$ is a prime number and $p^r$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $operatornamelcm(a,b)$. Thus $p^r$ divides either $a$ or $b$.



            Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. Then $sle r$.



            Let $p^t$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$. Clearly $sle t$.



            Now $p^min(r,t)$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $ gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b))$.



            But $p^min(r,t)$ divides $a+b$ and either $a$ or $b$, hence divide both, so $ min(r,t) le s$, so $s=min(r,t)$.



            But it is clear that $p^s$ is also the largest power of $p$ that divides $gcd(a,b)$.



            Since this is true for an arbitrary prime $p$, they are equal.






            share|cite|improve this answer


















            • 2




              This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
              – Batominovski
              Aug 13 at 9:26











            • Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
              – xarles
              Aug 13 at 10:39










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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
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            Let $d:=gcd(a,b)$, $a=dm$, and $b=dn$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers (which are relatively prime). Then, $textlcm(a,b)=dmn$. We want to prove that $$d=gcd(a,b)=gcdbig(a+b,textlcm(a,b)big)=gcdbig(d(m+n),dmnbig)=d,gcd(m+n,mn),.$$
            Thus, it suffices to show that $gcd(m+n,mn)=1$. If this were not true, then there would exist a prime $p$ that divides both $m+n$ and $mn$, for which $p$ must divide at least one of $m$ and $n$, but then, as $p$ divides $m+n$, we conclude that $m$ and $n$ are both divisible by $p$, which is absurd, for $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. The claim follows.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              up vote
              5
              down vote



              accepted










              Let $d:=gcd(a,b)$, $a=dm$, and $b=dn$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers (which are relatively prime). Then, $textlcm(a,b)=dmn$. We want to prove that $$d=gcd(a,b)=gcdbig(a+b,textlcm(a,b)big)=gcdbig(d(m+n),dmnbig)=d,gcd(m+n,mn),.$$
              Thus, it suffices to show that $gcd(m+n,mn)=1$. If this were not true, then there would exist a prime $p$ that divides both $m+n$ and $mn$, for which $p$ must divide at least one of $m$ and $n$, but then, as $p$ divides $m+n$, we conclude that $m$ and $n$ are both divisible by $p$, which is absurd, for $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. The claim follows.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                5
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                5
                down vote



                accepted






                Let $d:=gcd(a,b)$, $a=dm$, and $b=dn$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers (which are relatively prime). Then, $textlcm(a,b)=dmn$. We want to prove that $$d=gcd(a,b)=gcdbig(a+b,textlcm(a,b)big)=gcdbig(d(m+n),dmnbig)=d,gcd(m+n,mn),.$$
                Thus, it suffices to show that $gcd(m+n,mn)=1$. If this were not true, then there would exist a prime $p$ that divides both $m+n$ and $mn$, for which $p$ must divide at least one of $m$ and $n$, but then, as $p$ divides $m+n$, we conclude that $m$ and $n$ are both divisible by $p$, which is absurd, for $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. The claim follows.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                Let $d:=gcd(a,b)$, $a=dm$, and $b=dn$, where $m$ and $n$ are integers (which are relatively prime). Then, $textlcm(a,b)=dmn$. We want to prove that $$d=gcd(a,b)=gcdbig(a+b,textlcm(a,b)big)=gcdbig(d(m+n),dmnbig)=d,gcd(m+n,mn),.$$
                Thus, it suffices to show that $gcd(m+n,mn)=1$. If this were not true, then there would exist a prime $p$ that divides both $m+n$ and $mn$, for which $p$ must divide at least one of $m$ and $n$, but then, as $p$ divides $m+n$, we conclude that $m$ and $n$ are both divisible by $p$, which is absurd, for $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. The claim follows.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Aug 13 at 14:50

























                answered Aug 13 at 9:30









                Batominovski

                24.2k22779




                24.2k22779




















                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    Suppose $p$ is a prime number and $p^r$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $operatornamelcm(a,b)$. Thus $p^r$ divides either $a$ or $b$.



                    Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. Then $sle r$.



                    Let $p^t$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$. Clearly $sle t$.



                    Now $p^min(r,t)$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $ gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b))$.



                    But $p^min(r,t)$ divides $a+b$ and either $a$ or $b$, hence divide both, so $ min(r,t) le s$, so $s=min(r,t)$.



                    But it is clear that $p^s$ is also the largest power of $p$ that divides $gcd(a,b)$.



                    Since this is true for an arbitrary prime $p$, they are equal.






                    share|cite|improve this answer


















                    • 2




                      This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
                      – Batominovski
                      Aug 13 at 9:26











                    • Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
                      – xarles
                      Aug 13 at 10:39














                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote













                    Suppose $p$ is a prime number and $p^r$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $operatornamelcm(a,b)$. Thus $p^r$ divides either $a$ or $b$.



                    Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. Then $sle r$.



                    Let $p^t$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$. Clearly $sle t$.



                    Now $p^min(r,t)$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $ gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b))$.



                    But $p^min(r,t)$ divides $a+b$ and either $a$ or $b$, hence divide both, so $ min(r,t) le s$, so $s=min(r,t)$.



                    But it is clear that $p^s$ is also the largest power of $p$ that divides $gcd(a,b)$.



                    Since this is true for an arbitrary prime $p$, they are equal.






                    share|cite|improve this answer


















                    • 2




                      This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
                      – Batominovski
                      Aug 13 at 9:26











                    • Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
                      – xarles
                      Aug 13 at 10:39












                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    Suppose $p$ is a prime number and $p^r$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $operatornamelcm(a,b)$. Thus $p^r$ divides either $a$ or $b$.



                    Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. Then $sle r$.



                    Let $p^t$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$. Clearly $sle t$.



                    Now $p^min(r,t)$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $ gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b))$.



                    But $p^min(r,t)$ divides $a+b$ and either $a$ or $b$, hence divide both, so $ min(r,t) le s$, so $s=min(r,t)$.



                    But it is clear that $p^s$ is also the largest power of $p$ that divides $gcd(a,b)$.



                    Since this is true for an arbitrary prime $p$, they are equal.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Suppose $p$ is a prime number and $p^r$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $operatornamelcm(a,b)$. Thus $p^r$ divides either $a$ or $b$.



                    Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. Then $sle r$.



                    Let $p^t$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$. Clearly $sle t$.



                    Now $p^min(r,t)$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $ gcd(a + b, operatornamelcm(a, b))$.



                    But $p^min(r,t)$ divides $a+b$ and either $a$ or $b$, hence divide both, so $ min(r,t) le s$, so $s=min(r,t)$.



                    But it is clear that $p^s$ is also the largest power of $p$ that divides $gcd(a,b)$.



                    Since this is true for an arbitrary prime $p$, they are equal.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Aug 13 at 10:38

























                    answered Aug 13 at 9:16









                    xarles

                    1,21969




                    1,21969







                    • 2




                      This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
                      – Batominovski
                      Aug 13 at 9:26











                    • Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
                      – xarles
                      Aug 13 at 10:39












                    • 2




                      This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
                      – Batominovski
                      Aug 13 at 9:26











                    • Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
                      – xarles
                      Aug 13 at 10:39







                    2




                    2




                    This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
                    – Batominovski
                    Aug 13 at 9:26





                    This is not true: "Let $p^s$ be the largest power of $p$ that divides $a$ and $b$. [...] and $p^s$ is the largest power of $p$ that divides $a+b$." Try $a=3$ and $b=6$, with $p=3$.
                    – Batominovski
                    Aug 13 at 9:26













                    Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
                    – xarles
                    Aug 13 at 10:39




                    Thank you for the comment. I modifiedthe proof. Hope now is correct...
                    – xarles
                    Aug 13 at 10:39












                     

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