Richard Bass' Real Analysis Exercise 3.2

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I am self-studying from Richard Bass's Real Analysis book, available here.



I am not sure about Exercise 3.2:




Suppose $(X,mathcalA)$ is a measurable space and $mu$ is a
non-negative set function that is finitely additive and such that
$mu(varnothing) = 0$ and $mu(X)<infty$. Suppose that whenever $A_i$ is a sequence of sets in $mathcalA$ which decrease to $varnothing$, then $lim_itoinftymu(A_i)=0$. Show that $mu$ is a measure.




In order to show that $mu$ is a measure, all that remains to be shown is for any countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$,
$$mu(cup_i B_i)=sum_i mu(B_i).$$



My attempt:



Let $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$ be a countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets. Then consider $cup_i=n^inftyB_i downarrow varnothing$. It follows that $lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=n^inftyB_i)=0$. We can rewrite this as
$$lim_ntoinftymuleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_i-cup_i=1^n-1B_iright)=0,$$
so by the algebra of limits
$$muleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_iright)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n-1B_i)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n B_i)=lim_ntoinftysum_i=1^nmu(B_i)=sum_i=1^inftymu(B_i).$$



Questions:



(1) Is this proof correct? (In particular I am not sure that $cup_i=n^inftyB_i$ does decrease to $varnothing$.)



(2) I do not appear to have used $mu(X)<infty$ anywhere. Why is this needed?







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  • For an alternative proof, this problem is, I think, essentially the same as this recent post of mine.
    – Moed Pol Bollo
    Aug 14 at 1:40














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am self-studying from Richard Bass's Real Analysis book, available here.



I am not sure about Exercise 3.2:




Suppose $(X,mathcalA)$ is a measurable space and $mu$ is a
non-negative set function that is finitely additive and such that
$mu(varnothing) = 0$ and $mu(X)<infty$. Suppose that whenever $A_i$ is a sequence of sets in $mathcalA$ which decrease to $varnothing$, then $lim_itoinftymu(A_i)=0$. Show that $mu$ is a measure.




In order to show that $mu$ is a measure, all that remains to be shown is for any countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$,
$$mu(cup_i B_i)=sum_i mu(B_i).$$



My attempt:



Let $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$ be a countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets. Then consider $cup_i=n^inftyB_i downarrow varnothing$. It follows that $lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=n^inftyB_i)=0$. We can rewrite this as
$$lim_ntoinftymuleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_i-cup_i=1^n-1B_iright)=0,$$
so by the algebra of limits
$$muleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_iright)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n-1B_i)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n B_i)=lim_ntoinftysum_i=1^nmu(B_i)=sum_i=1^inftymu(B_i).$$



Questions:



(1) Is this proof correct? (In particular I am not sure that $cup_i=n^inftyB_i$ does decrease to $varnothing$.)



(2) I do not appear to have used $mu(X)<infty$ anywhere. Why is this needed?







share|cite|improve this question




















  • For an alternative proof, this problem is, I think, essentially the same as this recent post of mine.
    – Moed Pol Bollo
    Aug 14 at 1:40












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am self-studying from Richard Bass's Real Analysis book, available here.



I am not sure about Exercise 3.2:




Suppose $(X,mathcalA)$ is a measurable space and $mu$ is a
non-negative set function that is finitely additive and such that
$mu(varnothing) = 0$ and $mu(X)<infty$. Suppose that whenever $A_i$ is a sequence of sets in $mathcalA$ which decrease to $varnothing$, then $lim_itoinftymu(A_i)=0$. Show that $mu$ is a measure.




In order to show that $mu$ is a measure, all that remains to be shown is for any countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$,
$$mu(cup_i B_i)=sum_i mu(B_i).$$



My attempt:



Let $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$ be a countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets. Then consider $cup_i=n^inftyB_i downarrow varnothing$. It follows that $lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=n^inftyB_i)=0$. We can rewrite this as
$$lim_ntoinftymuleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_i-cup_i=1^n-1B_iright)=0,$$
so by the algebra of limits
$$muleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_iright)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n-1B_i)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n B_i)=lim_ntoinftysum_i=1^nmu(B_i)=sum_i=1^inftymu(B_i).$$



Questions:



(1) Is this proof correct? (In particular I am not sure that $cup_i=n^inftyB_i$ does decrease to $varnothing$.)



(2) I do not appear to have used $mu(X)<infty$ anywhere. Why is this needed?







share|cite|improve this question












I am self-studying from Richard Bass's Real Analysis book, available here.



I am not sure about Exercise 3.2:




Suppose $(X,mathcalA)$ is a measurable space and $mu$ is a
non-negative set function that is finitely additive and such that
$mu(varnothing) = 0$ and $mu(X)<infty$. Suppose that whenever $A_i$ is a sequence of sets in $mathcalA$ which decrease to $varnothing$, then $lim_itoinftymu(A_i)=0$. Show that $mu$ is a measure.




In order to show that $mu$ is a measure, all that remains to be shown is for any countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$,
$$mu(cup_i B_i)=sum_i mu(B_i).$$



My attempt:



Let $B_i_ i =1,2,3ldots$ be a countable collection of pairwise disjoint sets. Then consider $cup_i=n^inftyB_i downarrow varnothing$. It follows that $lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=n^inftyB_i)=0$. We can rewrite this as
$$lim_ntoinftymuleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_i-cup_i=1^n-1B_iright)=0,$$
so by the algebra of limits
$$muleft(cup_i=1^inftyB_iright)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n-1B_i)=lim_ntoinftymu(cup_i=1^n B_i)=lim_ntoinftysum_i=1^nmu(B_i)=sum_i=1^inftymu(B_i).$$



Questions:



(1) Is this proof correct? (In particular I am not sure that $cup_i=n^inftyB_i$ does decrease to $varnothing$.)



(2) I do not appear to have used $mu(X)<infty$ anywhere. Why is this needed?









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Aug 13 at 9:51









rbird

1,13313




1,13313











  • For an alternative proof, this problem is, I think, essentially the same as this recent post of mine.
    – Moed Pol Bollo
    Aug 14 at 1:40
















  • For an alternative proof, this problem is, I think, essentially the same as this recent post of mine.
    – Moed Pol Bollo
    Aug 14 at 1:40















For an alternative proof, this problem is, I think, essentially the same as this recent post of mine.
– Moed Pol Bollo
Aug 14 at 1:40




For an alternative proof, this problem is, I think, essentially the same as this recent post of mine.
– Moed Pol Bollo
Aug 14 at 1:40










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










You cannot write $mu (Asetminus B)$ as $mu (A)-mu (B)$ for infinite measures (for $B subset A$). That is where the assumption $mu (X) <infty $ is required. Otherwise your proof is correct. It should be clear that $cup_i=n^infty B_i$ is decreasing. Suppose there is a point $x$ in the intersection. Then $x$ would belong to infinitely many of the sets $B_i$. But no point can belong to more than one of these sets, so the intersection is empty.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    As Kavi Rama Murthy already noted, you use $mu(X) < infty$ when you write $mu(Asetminus B) = mu(A)-mu(B)$. Actually, this is a stronger than what is needed: For $Bsubseteq A$, it suffices that $mu(B) < infty$. This is easy to see from the proof: we have $A = (Asetminus B) cup B$, and the two sets on the right hand side are disjoint, so we have $$mu(A) = mu(Asetminus B) + mu(B).$$
    Now in order to be able to subtract $mu(B)$ from both sides of this equation, you need $mu(B) < infty$. Of course, the most natural assumption that guarantees this for arbitrary measurable sets is $mu(X) < infty$.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      You cannot write $mu (Asetminus B)$ as $mu (A)-mu (B)$ for infinite measures (for $B subset A$). That is where the assumption $mu (X) <infty $ is required. Otherwise your proof is correct. It should be clear that $cup_i=n^infty B_i$ is decreasing. Suppose there is a point $x$ in the intersection. Then $x$ would belong to infinitely many of the sets $B_i$. But no point can belong to more than one of these sets, so the intersection is empty.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted










        You cannot write $mu (Asetminus B)$ as $mu (A)-mu (B)$ for infinite measures (for $B subset A$). That is where the assumption $mu (X) <infty $ is required. Otherwise your proof is correct. It should be clear that $cup_i=n^infty B_i$ is decreasing. Suppose there is a point $x$ in the intersection. Then $x$ would belong to infinitely many of the sets $B_i$. But no point can belong to more than one of these sets, so the intersection is empty.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          You cannot write $mu (Asetminus B)$ as $mu (A)-mu (B)$ for infinite measures (for $B subset A$). That is where the assumption $mu (X) <infty $ is required. Otherwise your proof is correct. It should be clear that $cup_i=n^infty B_i$ is decreasing. Suppose there is a point $x$ in the intersection. Then $x$ would belong to infinitely many of the sets $B_i$. But no point can belong to more than one of these sets, so the intersection is empty.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          You cannot write $mu (Asetminus B)$ as $mu (A)-mu (B)$ for infinite measures (for $B subset A$). That is where the assumption $mu (X) <infty $ is required. Otherwise your proof is correct. It should be clear that $cup_i=n^infty B_i$ is decreasing. Suppose there is a point $x$ in the intersection. Then $x$ would belong to infinitely many of the sets $B_i$. But no point can belong to more than one of these sets, so the intersection is empty.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 13 at 9:59









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          22.2k2933




          22.2k2933




















              up vote
              1
              down vote













              As Kavi Rama Murthy already noted, you use $mu(X) < infty$ when you write $mu(Asetminus B) = mu(A)-mu(B)$. Actually, this is a stronger than what is needed: For $Bsubseteq A$, it suffices that $mu(B) < infty$. This is easy to see from the proof: we have $A = (Asetminus B) cup B$, and the two sets on the right hand side are disjoint, so we have $$mu(A) = mu(Asetminus B) + mu(B).$$
              Now in order to be able to subtract $mu(B)$ from both sides of this equation, you need $mu(B) < infty$. Of course, the most natural assumption that guarantees this for arbitrary measurable sets is $mu(X) < infty$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                As Kavi Rama Murthy already noted, you use $mu(X) < infty$ when you write $mu(Asetminus B) = mu(A)-mu(B)$. Actually, this is a stronger than what is needed: For $Bsubseteq A$, it suffices that $mu(B) < infty$. This is easy to see from the proof: we have $A = (Asetminus B) cup B$, and the two sets on the right hand side are disjoint, so we have $$mu(A) = mu(Asetminus B) + mu(B).$$
                Now in order to be able to subtract $mu(B)$ from both sides of this equation, you need $mu(B) < infty$. Of course, the most natural assumption that guarantees this for arbitrary measurable sets is $mu(X) < infty$.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  As Kavi Rama Murthy already noted, you use $mu(X) < infty$ when you write $mu(Asetminus B) = mu(A)-mu(B)$. Actually, this is a stronger than what is needed: For $Bsubseteq A$, it suffices that $mu(B) < infty$. This is easy to see from the proof: we have $A = (Asetminus B) cup B$, and the two sets on the right hand side are disjoint, so we have $$mu(A) = mu(Asetminus B) + mu(B).$$
                  Now in order to be able to subtract $mu(B)$ from both sides of this equation, you need $mu(B) < infty$. Of course, the most natural assumption that guarantees this for arbitrary measurable sets is $mu(X) < infty$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  As Kavi Rama Murthy already noted, you use $mu(X) < infty$ when you write $mu(Asetminus B) = mu(A)-mu(B)$. Actually, this is a stronger than what is needed: For $Bsubseteq A$, it suffices that $mu(B) < infty$. This is easy to see from the proof: we have $A = (Asetminus B) cup B$, and the two sets on the right hand side are disjoint, so we have $$mu(A) = mu(Asetminus B) + mu(B).$$
                  Now in order to be able to subtract $mu(B)$ from both sides of this equation, you need $mu(B) < infty$. Of course, the most natural assumption that guarantees this for arbitrary measurable sets is $mu(X) < infty$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 13 at 10:10









                  user159517

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