Proof of $cl(A cup B)=cl(A) cup cl(B)$

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For any two sets $A$ and $B$ in a space $X$, $$textcl(A cup B)=textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$ where $textcl(Y)$ denote the closure of $Y$




This question and its answer are already available in this site. Why I am posting here is "to check my proof". Here's My try:



$$x in textcl(A cup B) Leftrightarrow exists ;r>0 ;textsuch that;B_r(x) cap (A cup B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A)cup (B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A) neq emptyset ;textor;(B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A); textor; x in textcl(B)$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$



Is this right?







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  • 2




    @Cataline The proof is actually "too" concise as it makes a mistake by losing the $exists r$ in every one of the statements.
    – 5xum
    Aug 13 at 11:07






  • 1




    according to your first $iff$ every $x$ is an element of $mathsfcl(Acup B)$
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:07










  • Oh! replacing $exists$ by $forall$ is then true?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:09














up vote
2
down vote

favorite













For any two sets $A$ and $B$ in a space $X$, $$textcl(A cup B)=textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$ where $textcl(Y)$ denote the closure of $Y$




This question and its answer are already available in this site. Why I am posting here is "to check my proof". Here's My try:



$$x in textcl(A cup B) Leftrightarrow exists ;r>0 ;textsuch that;B_r(x) cap (A cup B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A)cup (B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A) neq emptyset ;textor;(B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A); textor; x in textcl(B)$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$



Is this right?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    @Cataline The proof is actually "too" concise as it makes a mistake by losing the $exists r$ in every one of the statements.
    – 5xum
    Aug 13 at 11:07






  • 1




    according to your first $iff$ every $x$ is an element of $mathsfcl(Acup B)$
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:07










  • Oh! replacing $exists$ by $forall$ is then true?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:09












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite












For any two sets $A$ and $B$ in a space $X$, $$textcl(A cup B)=textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$ where $textcl(Y)$ denote the closure of $Y$




This question and its answer are already available in this site. Why I am posting here is "to check my proof". Here's My try:



$$x in textcl(A cup B) Leftrightarrow exists ;r>0 ;textsuch that;B_r(x) cap (A cup B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A)cup (B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A) neq emptyset ;textor;(B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A); textor; x in textcl(B)$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$



Is this right?







share|cite|improve this question















For any two sets $A$ and $B$ in a space $X$, $$textcl(A cup B)=textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$ where $textcl(Y)$ denote the closure of $Y$




This question and its answer are already available in this site. Why I am posting here is "to check my proof". Here's My try:



$$x in textcl(A cup B) Leftrightarrow exists ;r>0 ;textsuch that;B_r(x) cap (A cup B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A)cup (B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow (B_r(x) cap A) neq emptyset ;textor;(B_r(x) cap B) neq emptyset$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A); textor; x in textcl(B)$$



$$Leftrightarrow x in textcl(A) cup textcl(B)$$



Is this right?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 13 at 11:04









Ivan Di Liberti

2,29311122




2,29311122










asked Aug 13 at 10:58









Learning Mathematics

543313




543313







  • 2




    @Cataline The proof is actually "too" concise as it makes a mistake by losing the $exists r$ in every one of the statements.
    – 5xum
    Aug 13 at 11:07






  • 1




    according to your first $iff$ every $x$ is an element of $mathsfcl(Acup B)$
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:07










  • Oh! replacing $exists$ by $forall$ is then true?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:09












  • 2




    @Cataline The proof is actually "too" concise as it makes a mistake by losing the $exists r$ in every one of the statements.
    – 5xum
    Aug 13 at 11:07






  • 1




    according to your first $iff$ every $x$ is an element of $mathsfcl(Acup B)$
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:07










  • Oh! replacing $exists$ by $forall$ is then true?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:09







2




2




@Cataline The proof is actually "too" concise as it makes a mistake by losing the $exists r$ in every one of the statements.
– 5xum
Aug 13 at 11:07




@Cataline The proof is actually "too" concise as it makes a mistake by losing the $exists r$ in every one of the statements.
– 5xum
Aug 13 at 11:07




1




1




according to your first $iff$ every $x$ is an element of $mathsfcl(Acup B)$
– drhab
Aug 13 at 11:07




according to your first $iff$ every $x$ is an element of $mathsfcl(Acup B)$
– drhab
Aug 13 at 11:07












Oh! replacing $exists$ by $forall$ is then true?
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:09




Oh! replacing $exists$ by $forall$ is then true?
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:09










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I take issue with your first equivalence. Take the open ball of radius $1$ and center $0$. Then for a point $p$, a ball $B_r(p)$ intersects $B_1(0)$ if you take $r = mathrmdist(p,0)$. Is the closure of $B_1(0)$ the full space $mathbb R^n$ ?



The equivalence you should have is:



$$
xin mathrmcl(x) Leftrightarrow forall r > 0: B_r(x) cap(A cup B) ne varnothing
$$



But you have an issue in the sense that for a given $x$, $B_r(x)$ will intersect either with $A$ or $B$ and so far that depends on $r$. But you must have either $A$ or $B$ that intersects with $B_r(x)$ for all $r > 0$, not some of them depending on $r$, so you have additional steps to do.



Note that if there is a radius $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ intersects $A$ but not $B$, for any $0 < r_2 < r_1$, $B_r_2(x)$ cannot intersect $B$, else you contradict the conditions on $r_1$. Moreover, for $r_3 > r_1$, $B_r_3(x)$ must intersect $A$ since $B_r_1(x) subset B_r_3(x)$. Thus, you can see that for a given $x$, if there is an $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ does not intersect $B$, then for all $r>0$, $B_r(x)$ intersects $A$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:15










  • No. I edited to add why not.
    – Lærne
    Aug 13 at 11:17










  • Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:24


















up vote
1
down vote













This answer shows that the equality is valid in every topological space.



From $Asubseteq Acup B$ it follows directly that $mathsfcl(A)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$.



Similarly we find $mathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$ and conclude that:



$$mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$$



If $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ then open sets $U,V$ exist that contain $x$ as element and have an empty intersection with $A$ and $B$ respectively.



Then $Ucap V$ is an open set that contains $x$ as element and has an empty intersection with $Acup B$. Proved is then that $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ implies that $xnotinmathsfcl(Acup B)$. This justifies the conclusion that also:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)subseteqmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$and we conclude that:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)=mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$




More shortly the second part follows also from the following reasoning: $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is the smallest closed set that contains $Acup B$ as a subset. The sets $mathsfcl(A)$ and $mathsfcl(B)$ are both closed, and consequently their union is closed. Further this union contains $Acup B$ as a subset so we are allowed to conclude that $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is a subset of this union.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Nice answer! thanks!
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:31










  • @LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:31











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I take issue with your first equivalence. Take the open ball of radius $1$ and center $0$. Then for a point $p$, a ball $B_r(p)$ intersects $B_1(0)$ if you take $r = mathrmdist(p,0)$. Is the closure of $B_1(0)$ the full space $mathbb R^n$ ?



The equivalence you should have is:



$$
xin mathrmcl(x) Leftrightarrow forall r > 0: B_r(x) cap(A cup B) ne varnothing
$$



But you have an issue in the sense that for a given $x$, $B_r(x)$ will intersect either with $A$ or $B$ and so far that depends on $r$. But you must have either $A$ or $B$ that intersects with $B_r(x)$ for all $r > 0$, not some of them depending on $r$, so you have additional steps to do.



Note that if there is a radius $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ intersects $A$ but not $B$, for any $0 < r_2 < r_1$, $B_r_2(x)$ cannot intersect $B$, else you contradict the conditions on $r_1$. Moreover, for $r_3 > r_1$, $B_r_3(x)$ must intersect $A$ since $B_r_1(x) subset B_r_3(x)$. Thus, you can see that for a given $x$, if there is an $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ does not intersect $B$, then for all $r>0$, $B_r(x)$ intersects $A$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:15










  • No. I edited to add why not.
    – Lærne
    Aug 13 at 11:17










  • Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:24















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I take issue with your first equivalence. Take the open ball of radius $1$ and center $0$. Then for a point $p$, a ball $B_r(p)$ intersects $B_1(0)$ if you take $r = mathrmdist(p,0)$. Is the closure of $B_1(0)$ the full space $mathbb R^n$ ?



The equivalence you should have is:



$$
xin mathrmcl(x) Leftrightarrow forall r > 0: B_r(x) cap(A cup B) ne varnothing
$$



But you have an issue in the sense that for a given $x$, $B_r(x)$ will intersect either with $A$ or $B$ and so far that depends on $r$. But you must have either $A$ or $B$ that intersects with $B_r(x)$ for all $r > 0$, not some of them depending on $r$, so you have additional steps to do.



Note that if there is a radius $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ intersects $A$ but not $B$, for any $0 < r_2 < r_1$, $B_r_2(x)$ cannot intersect $B$, else you contradict the conditions on $r_1$. Moreover, for $r_3 > r_1$, $B_r_3(x)$ must intersect $A$ since $B_r_1(x) subset B_r_3(x)$. Thus, you can see that for a given $x$, if there is an $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ does not intersect $B$, then for all $r>0$, $B_r(x)$ intersects $A$.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:15










  • No. I edited to add why not.
    – Lærne
    Aug 13 at 11:17










  • Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:24













up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






I take issue with your first equivalence. Take the open ball of radius $1$ and center $0$. Then for a point $p$, a ball $B_r(p)$ intersects $B_1(0)$ if you take $r = mathrmdist(p,0)$. Is the closure of $B_1(0)$ the full space $mathbb R^n$ ?



The equivalence you should have is:



$$
xin mathrmcl(x) Leftrightarrow forall r > 0: B_r(x) cap(A cup B) ne varnothing
$$



But you have an issue in the sense that for a given $x$, $B_r(x)$ will intersect either with $A$ or $B$ and so far that depends on $r$. But you must have either $A$ or $B$ that intersects with $B_r(x)$ for all $r > 0$, not some of them depending on $r$, so you have additional steps to do.



Note that if there is a radius $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ intersects $A$ but not $B$, for any $0 < r_2 < r_1$, $B_r_2(x)$ cannot intersect $B$, else you contradict the conditions on $r_1$. Moreover, for $r_3 > r_1$, $B_r_3(x)$ must intersect $A$ since $B_r_1(x) subset B_r_3(x)$. Thus, you can see that for a given $x$, if there is an $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ does not intersect $B$, then for all $r>0$, $B_r(x)$ intersects $A$.






share|cite|improve this answer














I take issue with your first equivalence. Take the open ball of radius $1$ and center $0$. Then for a point $p$, a ball $B_r(p)$ intersects $B_1(0)$ if you take $r = mathrmdist(p,0)$. Is the closure of $B_1(0)$ the full space $mathbb R^n$ ?



The equivalence you should have is:



$$
xin mathrmcl(x) Leftrightarrow forall r > 0: B_r(x) cap(A cup B) ne varnothing
$$



But you have an issue in the sense that for a given $x$, $B_r(x)$ will intersect either with $A$ or $B$ and so far that depends on $r$. But you must have either $A$ or $B$ that intersects with $B_r(x)$ for all $r > 0$, not some of them depending on $r$, so you have additional steps to do.



Note that if there is a radius $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ intersects $A$ but not $B$, for any $0 < r_2 < r_1$, $B_r_2(x)$ cannot intersect $B$, else you contradict the conditions on $r_1$. Moreover, for $r_3 > r_1$, $B_r_3(x)$ must intersect $A$ since $B_r_1(x) subset B_r_3(x)$. Thus, you can see that for a given $x$, if there is an $r_1$ such that $B_r_1(x)$ does not intersect $B$, then for all $r>0$, $B_r(x)$ intersects $A$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 13 at 11:53

























answered Aug 13 at 11:07









Lærne

1,919418




1,919418











  • So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:15










  • No. I edited to add why not.
    – Lærne
    Aug 13 at 11:17










  • Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:24

















  • So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:15










  • No. I edited to add why not.
    – Lærne
    Aug 13 at 11:17










  • Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:24
















So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:15




So my proof is correct only when replacing $exists$ by $forall$ ?
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:15












No. I edited to add why not.
– Lærne
Aug 13 at 11:17




No. I edited to add why not.
– Lærne
Aug 13 at 11:17












Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:24





Thanks! I understand....(Finally my proof becomes one of the mathematical fallacies !)
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:24











up vote
1
down vote













This answer shows that the equality is valid in every topological space.



From $Asubseteq Acup B$ it follows directly that $mathsfcl(A)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$.



Similarly we find $mathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$ and conclude that:



$$mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$$



If $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ then open sets $U,V$ exist that contain $x$ as element and have an empty intersection with $A$ and $B$ respectively.



Then $Ucap V$ is an open set that contains $x$ as element and has an empty intersection with $Acup B$. Proved is then that $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ implies that $xnotinmathsfcl(Acup B)$. This justifies the conclusion that also:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)subseteqmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$and we conclude that:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)=mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$




More shortly the second part follows also from the following reasoning: $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is the smallest closed set that contains $Acup B$ as a subset. The sets $mathsfcl(A)$ and $mathsfcl(B)$ are both closed, and consequently their union is closed. Further this union contains $Acup B$ as a subset so we are allowed to conclude that $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is a subset of this union.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Nice answer! thanks!
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:31










  • @LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:31















up vote
1
down vote













This answer shows that the equality is valid in every topological space.



From $Asubseteq Acup B$ it follows directly that $mathsfcl(A)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$.



Similarly we find $mathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$ and conclude that:



$$mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$$



If $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ then open sets $U,V$ exist that contain $x$ as element and have an empty intersection with $A$ and $B$ respectively.



Then $Ucap V$ is an open set that contains $x$ as element and has an empty intersection with $Acup B$. Proved is then that $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ implies that $xnotinmathsfcl(Acup B)$. This justifies the conclusion that also:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)subseteqmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$and we conclude that:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)=mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$




More shortly the second part follows also from the following reasoning: $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is the smallest closed set that contains $Acup B$ as a subset. The sets $mathsfcl(A)$ and $mathsfcl(B)$ are both closed, and consequently their union is closed. Further this union contains $Acup B$ as a subset so we are allowed to conclude that $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is a subset of this union.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Nice answer! thanks!
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:31










  • @LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:31













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









This answer shows that the equality is valid in every topological space.



From $Asubseteq Acup B$ it follows directly that $mathsfcl(A)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$.



Similarly we find $mathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$ and conclude that:



$$mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$$



If $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ then open sets $U,V$ exist that contain $x$ as element and have an empty intersection with $A$ and $B$ respectively.



Then $Ucap V$ is an open set that contains $x$ as element and has an empty intersection with $Acup B$. Proved is then that $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ implies that $xnotinmathsfcl(Acup B)$. This justifies the conclusion that also:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)subseteqmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$and we conclude that:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)=mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$




More shortly the second part follows also from the following reasoning: $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is the smallest closed set that contains $Acup B$ as a subset. The sets $mathsfcl(A)$ and $mathsfcl(B)$ are both closed, and consequently their union is closed. Further this union contains $Acup B$ as a subset so we are allowed to conclude that $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is a subset of this union.






share|cite|improve this answer














This answer shows that the equality is valid in every topological space.



From $Asubseteq Acup B$ it follows directly that $mathsfcl(A)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$.



Similarly we find $mathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$ and conclude that:



$$mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)subseteqmathsfcl(Acup B)$$



If $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ then open sets $U,V$ exist that contain $x$ as element and have an empty intersection with $A$ and $B$ respectively.



Then $Ucap V$ is an open set that contains $x$ as element and has an empty intersection with $Acup B$. Proved is then that $xnotinmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$ implies that $xnotinmathsfcl(Acup B)$. This justifies the conclusion that also:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)subseteqmathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$and we conclude that:$$mathsfcl(Acup B)=mathsfcl(A)cupmathsfcl(B)$$




More shortly the second part follows also from the following reasoning: $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is the smallest closed set that contains $Acup B$ as a subset. The sets $mathsfcl(A)$ and $mathsfcl(B)$ are both closed, and consequently their union is closed. Further this union contains $Acup B$ as a subset so we are allowed to conclude that $mathsfcl(Acup B)$ is a subset of this union.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 13 at 11:32

























answered Aug 13 at 11:23









drhab

87.4k541118




87.4k541118











  • Nice answer! thanks!
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:31










  • @LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:31

















  • Nice answer! thanks!
    – Learning Mathematics
    Aug 13 at 11:31










  • @LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
    – drhab
    Aug 13 at 11:31
















Nice answer! thanks!
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:31




Nice answer! thanks!
– Learning Mathematics
Aug 13 at 11:31












@LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
– drhab
Aug 13 at 11:31





@LearningMathematics Yes, thank you. Just a typo. Repaired. You are welcome.
– drhab
Aug 13 at 11:31













 

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