Evaluate $lim_x to infty [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]$

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$undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]=?$



My Try :$[(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x] = x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 + 2. tan^-1(x+2)$



$undersetx to inftylim x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 =0$ [By manipulating L'hospital] and $undersetx to inftylim2. tan^-1(x+2) = pi$



so $undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]= pi$



Can anyone please correct me If I have gone wrong anywhere?







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  • 2




    This is fine. +1
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 13 at 3:41










  • This is correct. $pi$ indeed is the limit.
    – NivPai
    Aug 13 at 3:48














up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1












$undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]=?$



My Try :$[(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x] = x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 + 2. tan^-1(x+2)$



$undersetx to inftylim x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 =0$ [By manipulating L'hospital] and $undersetx to inftylim2. tan^-1(x+2) = pi$



so $undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]= pi$



Can anyone please correct me If I have gone wrong anywhere?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    This is fine. +1
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 13 at 3:41










  • This is correct. $pi$ indeed is the limit.
    – NivPai
    Aug 13 at 3:48












up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
4
down vote

favorite
1






1





$undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]=?$



My Try :$[(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x] = x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 + 2. tan^-1(x+2)$



$undersetx to inftylim x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 =0$ [By manipulating L'hospital] and $undersetx to inftylim2. tan^-1(x+2) = pi$



so $undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]= pi$



Can anyone please correct me If I have gone wrong anywhere?







share|cite|improve this question














$undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]=?$



My Try :$[(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x] = x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 + 2. tan^-1(x+2)$



$undersetx to inftylim x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2 =0$ [By manipulating L'hospital] and $undersetx to inftylim2. tan^-1(x+2) = pi$



so $undersetx to inftylim [(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1x]= pi$



Can anyone please correct me If I have gone wrong anywhere?









share|cite|improve this question













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edited Aug 13 at 3:43









Paramanand Singh

45.3k553142




45.3k553142










asked Aug 13 at 3:34









cmi

754110




754110







  • 2




    This is fine. +1
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 13 at 3:41










  • This is correct. $pi$ indeed is the limit.
    – NivPai
    Aug 13 at 3:48












  • 2




    This is fine. +1
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 13 at 3:41










  • This is correct. $pi$ indeed is the limit.
    – NivPai
    Aug 13 at 3:48







2




2




This is fine. +1
– Paramanand Singh
Aug 13 at 3:41




This is fine. +1
– Paramanand Singh
Aug 13 at 3:41












This is correct. $pi$ indeed is the limit.
– NivPai
Aug 13 at 3:48




This is correct. $pi$ indeed is the limit.
– NivPai
Aug 13 at 3:48










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

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up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Yes, the solution is correct.



You are using:
$$arctan apm arctan b=arctanfracapm b1mp ab$$
to simplify:
$$xtan^-1(x+2)-xtan^-1x=xtan^-1frac(x+2)-x1+(x+2)x=xtan^-1frac21+2x+x^2.$$
However, to evaluate the limit you can avoid using the L'Hospital's rule:
$$lim_x to infty x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2=
lim_xtoinfty fractan^-1frac21+2x+x^2frac21+2x+x^2cdot fracfrac21+2x+x^2frac1x=1cdot 0=0,$$
where $lim_limitsxto 0 fractan^-1xx=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    5
    down vote













    Your solution is fine.



    Another possible way to do it would be using that, for $t>0$,
    $$tan^-1(t)+tan ^-1left(frac1tright)=frac pi 2$$ making
    $$A=(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1(x)$$ $$A=(x+2)left(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right) right)-xleft(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1xright) right)$$
    $$A=pi+xtan ^-1left(frac1xright)-(x+2)tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right)$$ and use, for large $t$, the equivalent
    $$ttan ^-1left(frac1tright)sim 1$$



    If you want to go beyond, you could use Taylor expansions and get
    $$A=pi -frac43 x^3+frac4 x^4+Oleft(frac1x^5right)$$



    Using your pocket calculator, for $x=10$,
    $$A=12 tan ^-1(12)-10 tan ^-1(10)approx 3.14058$$ while the truncated expression gives
    $$pi -frac77500approx 3.14066$$






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      3
      down vote













      Here is another straightforward way to obtain the limit.



      Using the integral relation



      $$arctan u=int_0^udtover1+t^2$$



      we have



      $$beginalign
      (x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x
      &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_0^x+2dtover1+t^2-xint_0^xdtover1+t^2\
      &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2
      endalign$$



      Now $2arctan(x+2)topi$ as $xtoinfty$, while



      $$0le xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2le xint_x^x+2dtover x^2=2over xto0$$



      Thus



      $$lim_xtoinfty((x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x)=pi$$






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        Using the Mean Value Theorem, the following statement holds:



        For $f(z) = 2ztan^-1z$



        $$f'(x+xi)=frac2(x+2)tan^-1(x+2)-2xtan^-1xx+2-x$$



        For some $xi in (0,2)$



        The left hand side simplifies to:



        $$f'(x+xi)=2tan^-1(x+xi)+frac2(x+xi)1+(x+xi)^2$$



        The right hand side simplifies to the limit you seek.



        By taking the limit of the left hand side, the limit is clearly $pi$






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Your solution is fine but it can be shortened. By Lagrange's theorem $(x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan(x)$ is twice the value of the derivative of $zarctan z$ at some $zin(x,x+2)$. Since $fracddzzarctan(z) = underbracefracz1+z^2_to 0+underbracearctan(z)_to pi/2$, the wanted limit is $pi$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
            – Jack Lam
            Aug 13 at 12:52










          Your Answer




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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes








          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, the solution is correct.



          You are using:
          $$arctan apm arctan b=arctanfracapm b1mp ab$$
          to simplify:
          $$xtan^-1(x+2)-xtan^-1x=xtan^-1frac(x+2)-x1+(x+2)x=xtan^-1frac21+2x+x^2.$$
          However, to evaluate the limit you can avoid using the L'Hospital's rule:
          $$lim_x to infty x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2=
          lim_xtoinfty fractan^-1frac21+2x+x^2frac21+2x+x^2cdot fracfrac21+2x+x^2frac1x=1cdot 0=0,$$
          where $lim_limitsxto 0 fractan^-1xx=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Yes, the solution is correct.



            You are using:
            $$arctan apm arctan b=arctanfracapm b1mp ab$$
            to simplify:
            $$xtan^-1(x+2)-xtan^-1x=xtan^-1frac(x+2)-x1+(x+2)x=xtan^-1frac21+2x+x^2.$$
            However, to evaluate the limit you can avoid using the L'Hospital's rule:
            $$lim_x to infty x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2=
            lim_xtoinfty fractan^-1frac21+2x+x^2frac21+2x+x^2cdot fracfrac21+2x+x^2frac1x=1cdot 0=0,$$
            where $lim_limitsxto 0 fractan^-1xx=1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer






















              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted






              Yes, the solution is correct.



              You are using:
              $$arctan apm arctan b=arctanfracapm b1mp ab$$
              to simplify:
              $$xtan^-1(x+2)-xtan^-1x=xtan^-1frac(x+2)-x1+(x+2)x=xtan^-1frac21+2x+x^2.$$
              However, to evaluate the limit you can avoid using the L'Hospital's rule:
              $$lim_x to infty x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2=
              lim_xtoinfty fractan^-1frac21+2x+x^2frac21+2x+x^2cdot fracfrac21+2x+x^2frac1x=1cdot 0=0,$$
              where $lim_limitsxto 0 fractan^-1xx=1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Yes, the solution is correct.



              You are using:
              $$arctan apm arctan b=arctanfracapm b1mp ab$$
              to simplify:
              $$xtan^-1(x+2)-xtan^-1x=xtan^-1frac(x+2)-x1+(x+2)x=xtan^-1frac21+2x+x^2.$$
              However, to evaluate the limit you can avoid using the L'Hospital's rule:
              $$lim_x to infty x tan^-1 frac 21+2x+x^2=
              lim_xtoinfty fractan^-1frac21+2x+x^2frac21+2x+x^2cdot fracfrac21+2x+x^2frac1x=1cdot 0=0,$$
              where $lim_limitsxto 0 fractan^-1xx=1$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Aug 13 at 4:28









              farruhota

              13.9k2632




              13.9k2632




















                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote













                  Your solution is fine.



                  Another possible way to do it would be using that, for $t>0$,
                  $$tan^-1(t)+tan ^-1left(frac1tright)=frac pi 2$$ making
                  $$A=(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1(x)$$ $$A=(x+2)left(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right) right)-xleft(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1xright) right)$$
                  $$A=pi+xtan ^-1left(frac1xright)-(x+2)tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right)$$ and use, for large $t$, the equivalent
                  $$ttan ^-1left(frac1tright)sim 1$$



                  If you want to go beyond, you could use Taylor expansions and get
                  $$A=pi -frac43 x^3+frac4 x^4+Oleft(frac1x^5right)$$



                  Using your pocket calculator, for $x=10$,
                  $$A=12 tan ^-1(12)-10 tan ^-1(10)approx 3.14058$$ while the truncated expression gives
                  $$pi -frac77500approx 3.14066$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    up vote
                    5
                    down vote













                    Your solution is fine.



                    Another possible way to do it would be using that, for $t>0$,
                    $$tan^-1(t)+tan ^-1left(frac1tright)=frac pi 2$$ making
                    $$A=(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1(x)$$ $$A=(x+2)left(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right) right)-xleft(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1xright) right)$$
                    $$A=pi+xtan ^-1left(frac1xright)-(x+2)tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right)$$ and use, for large $t$, the equivalent
                    $$ttan ^-1left(frac1tright)sim 1$$



                    If you want to go beyond, you could use Taylor expansions and get
                    $$A=pi -frac43 x^3+frac4 x^4+Oleft(frac1x^5right)$$



                    Using your pocket calculator, for $x=10$,
                    $$A=12 tan ^-1(12)-10 tan ^-1(10)approx 3.14058$$ while the truncated expression gives
                    $$pi -frac77500approx 3.14066$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                      up vote
                      5
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      5
                      down vote









                      Your solution is fine.



                      Another possible way to do it would be using that, for $t>0$,
                      $$tan^-1(t)+tan ^-1left(frac1tright)=frac pi 2$$ making
                      $$A=(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1(x)$$ $$A=(x+2)left(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right) right)-xleft(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1xright) right)$$
                      $$A=pi+xtan ^-1left(frac1xright)-(x+2)tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right)$$ and use, for large $t$, the equivalent
                      $$ttan ^-1left(frac1tright)sim 1$$



                      If you want to go beyond, you could use Taylor expansions and get
                      $$A=pi -frac43 x^3+frac4 x^4+Oleft(frac1x^5right)$$



                      Using your pocket calculator, for $x=10$,
                      $$A=12 tan ^-1(12)-10 tan ^-1(10)approx 3.14058$$ while the truncated expression gives
                      $$pi -frac77500approx 3.14066$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      Your solution is fine.



                      Another possible way to do it would be using that, for $t>0$,
                      $$tan^-1(t)+tan ^-1left(frac1tright)=frac pi 2$$ making
                      $$A=(x+2)tan^-1(x+2) -x tan^-1(x)$$ $$A=(x+2)left(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right) right)-xleft(frac pi 2-tan ^-1left(frac1xright) right)$$
                      $$A=pi+xtan ^-1left(frac1xright)-(x+2)tan ^-1left(frac1x+2right)$$ and use, for large $t$, the equivalent
                      $$ttan ^-1left(frac1tright)sim 1$$



                      If you want to go beyond, you could use Taylor expansions and get
                      $$A=pi -frac43 x^3+frac4 x^4+Oleft(frac1x^5right)$$



                      Using your pocket calculator, for $x=10$,
                      $$A=12 tan ^-1(12)-10 tan ^-1(10)approx 3.14058$$ while the truncated expression gives
                      $$pi -frac77500approx 3.14066$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Aug 13 at 5:18









                      Claude Leibovici

                      112k1055127




                      112k1055127




















                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote













                          Here is another straightforward way to obtain the limit.



                          Using the integral relation



                          $$arctan u=int_0^udtover1+t^2$$



                          we have



                          $$beginalign
                          (x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x
                          &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_0^x+2dtover1+t^2-xint_0^xdtover1+t^2\
                          &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2
                          endalign$$



                          Now $2arctan(x+2)topi$ as $xtoinfty$, while



                          $$0le xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2le xint_x^x+2dtover x^2=2over xto0$$



                          Thus



                          $$lim_xtoinfty((x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x)=pi$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            up vote
                            3
                            down vote













                            Here is another straightforward way to obtain the limit.



                            Using the integral relation



                            $$arctan u=int_0^udtover1+t^2$$



                            we have



                            $$beginalign
                            (x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x
                            &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_0^x+2dtover1+t^2-xint_0^xdtover1+t^2\
                            &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2
                            endalign$$



                            Now $2arctan(x+2)topi$ as $xtoinfty$, while



                            $$0le xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2le xint_x^x+2dtover x^2=2over xto0$$



                            Thus



                            $$lim_xtoinfty((x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x)=pi$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer






















                              up vote
                              3
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              3
                              down vote









                              Here is another straightforward way to obtain the limit.



                              Using the integral relation



                              $$arctan u=int_0^udtover1+t^2$$



                              we have



                              $$beginalign
                              (x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x
                              &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_0^x+2dtover1+t^2-xint_0^xdtover1+t^2\
                              &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2
                              endalign$$



                              Now $2arctan(x+2)topi$ as $xtoinfty$, while



                              $$0le xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2le xint_x^x+2dtover x^2=2over xto0$$



                              Thus



                              $$lim_xtoinfty((x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x)=pi$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              Here is another straightforward way to obtain the limit.



                              Using the integral relation



                              $$arctan u=int_0^udtover1+t^2$$



                              we have



                              $$beginalign
                              (x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x
                              &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_0^x+2dtover1+t^2-xint_0^xdtover1+t^2\
                              &=2arctan(x+2)+xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2
                              endalign$$



                              Now $2arctan(x+2)topi$ as $xtoinfty$, while



                              $$0le xint_x^x+2dtover1+t^2le xint_x^x+2dtover x^2=2over xto0$$



                              Thus



                              $$lim_xtoinfty((x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan x)=pi$$







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Aug 13 at 5:57









                              Barry Cipra

                              56.6k652119




                              56.6k652119




















                                  up vote
                                  2
                                  down vote













                                  Using the Mean Value Theorem, the following statement holds:



                                  For $f(z) = 2ztan^-1z$



                                  $$f'(x+xi)=frac2(x+2)tan^-1(x+2)-2xtan^-1xx+2-x$$



                                  For some $xi in (0,2)$



                                  The left hand side simplifies to:



                                  $$f'(x+xi)=2tan^-1(x+xi)+frac2(x+xi)1+(x+xi)^2$$



                                  The right hand side simplifies to the limit you seek.



                                  By taking the limit of the left hand side, the limit is clearly $pi$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote













                                    Using the Mean Value Theorem, the following statement holds:



                                    For $f(z) = 2ztan^-1z$



                                    $$f'(x+xi)=frac2(x+2)tan^-1(x+2)-2xtan^-1xx+2-x$$



                                    For some $xi in (0,2)$



                                    The left hand side simplifies to:



                                    $$f'(x+xi)=2tan^-1(x+xi)+frac2(x+xi)1+(x+xi)^2$$



                                    The right hand side simplifies to the limit you seek.



                                    By taking the limit of the left hand side, the limit is clearly $pi$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer






















                                      up vote
                                      2
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      2
                                      down vote









                                      Using the Mean Value Theorem, the following statement holds:



                                      For $f(z) = 2ztan^-1z$



                                      $$f'(x+xi)=frac2(x+2)tan^-1(x+2)-2xtan^-1xx+2-x$$



                                      For some $xi in (0,2)$



                                      The left hand side simplifies to:



                                      $$f'(x+xi)=2tan^-1(x+xi)+frac2(x+xi)1+(x+xi)^2$$



                                      The right hand side simplifies to the limit you seek.



                                      By taking the limit of the left hand side, the limit is clearly $pi$






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      Using the Mean Value Theorem, the following statement holds:



                                      For $f(z) = 2ztan^-1z$



                                      $$f'(x+xi)=frac2(x+2)tan^-1(x+2)-2xtan^-1xx+2-x$$



                                      For some $xi in (0,2)$



                                      The left hand side simplifies to:



                                      $$f'(x+xi)=2tan^-1(x+xi)+frac2(x+xi)1+(x+xi)^2$$



                                      The right hand side simplifies to the limit you seek.



                                      By taking the limit of the left hand side, the limit is clearly $pi$







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Aug 13 at 5:03









                                      Jack Lam

                                      1,9791625




                                      1,9791625




















                                          up vote
                                          1
                                          down vote













                                          Your solution is fine but it can be shortened. By Lagrange's theorem $(x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan(x)$ is twice the value of the derivative of $zarctan z$ at some $zin(x,x+2)$. Since $fracddzzarctan(z) = underbracefracz1+z^2_to 0+underbracearctan(z)_to pi/2$, the wanted limit is $pi$.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer




















                                          • I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
                                            – Jack Lam
                                            Aug 13 at 12:52














                                          up vote
                                          1
                                          down vote













                                          Your solution is fine but it can be shortened. By Lagrange's theorem $(x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan(x)$ is twice the value of the derivative of $zarctan z$ at some $zin(x,x+2)$. Since $fracddzzarctan(z) = underbracefracz1+z^2_to 0+underbracearctan(z)_to pi/2$, the wanted limit is $pi$.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer




















                                          • I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
                                            – Jack Lam
                                            Aug 13 at 12:52












                                          up vote
                                          1
                                          down vote










                                          up vote
                                          1
                                          down vote









                                          Your solution is fine but it can be shortened. By Lagrange's theorem $(x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan(x)$ is twice the value of the derivative of $zarctan z$ at some $zin(x,x+2)$. Since $fracddzzarctan(z) = underbracefracz1+z^2_to 0+underbracearctan(z)_to pi/2$, the wanted limit is $pi$.






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                                          Your solution is fine but it can be shortened. By Lagrange's theorem $(x+2)arctan(x+2)-xarctan(x)$ is twice the value of the derivative of $zarctan z$ at some $zin(x,x+2)$. Since $fracddzzarctan(z) = underbracefracz1+z^2_to 0+underbracearctan(z)_to pi/2$, the wanted limit is $pi$.







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                                          answered Aug 13 at 8:22









                                          Jack D'Aurizio♦

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                                          • I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
                                            – Jack Lam
                                            Aug 13 at 12:52
















                                          • I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
                                            – Jack Lam
                                            Aug 13 at 12:52















                                          I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
                                          – Jack Lam
                                          Aug 13 at 12:52




                                          I mean this is basically my answer but cheers :)
                                          – Jack Lam
                                          Aug 13 at 12:52












                                           

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