Can $mathbb R$ be written as the disjoint union of (uncountably many) closed intervals?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












From this post: http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2010/10/04/covering-a-non-closed-interval-by-disjoint-closed-intervals/



We know that $mathbb R$ can't be written as the countable union of disjoint closed intervals. Can we do it if we allow uncountably many intervals? There doesn't seem to be a nice way to construct such a cover, since if we choose a closed interval, we split the line into two remaining pieces to cover that re still homeomorphic to the original real line. But on the other hand, I feel as if it should be possible, since with the possibility of uncountably many intervals, you should be able to find a way to cover everything.







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 4




    It is possible if you allow degenerate intervals $[a,a]$, of course.
    – Henning Makholm
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • It is possible with $1$ closed interval.
    – Jonas Meyer
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • Okay, $[a, a]$ and unbounded intervals don't count.
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:03














up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












From this post: http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2010/10/04/covering-a-non-closed-interval-by-disjoint-closed-intervals/



We know that $mathbb R$ can't be written as the countable union of disjoint closed intervals. Can we do it if we allow uncountably many intervals? There doesn't seem to be a nice way to construct such a cover, since if we choose a closed interval, we split the line into two remaining pieces to cover that re still homeomorphic to the original real line. But on the other hand, I feel as if it should be possible, since with the possibility of uncountably many intervals, you should be able to find a way to cover everything.







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 4




    It is possible if you allow degenerate intervals $[a,a]$, of course.
    – Henning Makholm
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • It is possible with $1$ closed interval.
    – Jonas Meyer
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • Okay, $[a, a]$ and unbounded intervals don't count.
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:03












up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1





From this post: http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2010/10/04/covering-a-non-closed-interval-by-disjoint-closed-intervals/



We know that $mathbb R$ can't be written as the countable union of disjoint closed intervals. Can we do it if we allow uncountably many intervals? There doesn't seem to be a nice way to construct such a cover, since if we choose a closed interval, we split the line into two remaining pieces to cover that re still homeomorphic to the original real line. But on the other hand, I feel as if it should be possible, since with the possibility of uncountably many intervals, you should be able to find a way to cover everything.







share|cite|improve this question












From this post: http://terrytao.wordpress.com/2010/10/04/covering-a-non-closed-interval-by-disjoint-closed-intervals/



We know that $mathbb R$ can't be written as the countable union of disjoint closed intervals. Can we do it if we allow uncountably many intervals? There doesn't seem to be a nice way to construct such a cover, since if we choose a closed interval, we split the line into two remaining pieces to cover that re still homeomorphic to the original real line. But on the other hand, I feel as if it should be possible, since with the possibility of uncountably many intervals, you should be able to find a way to cover everything.









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Oct 17 '14 at 21:57









Nishant

5,7342931




5,7342931







  • 4




    It is possible if you allow degenerate intervals $[a,a]$, of course.
    – Henning Makholm
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • It is possible with $1$ closed interval.
    – Jonas Meyer
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • Okay, $[a, a]$ and unbounded intervals don't count.
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:03












  • 4




    It is possible if you allow degenerate intervals $[a,a]$, of course.
    – Henning Makholm
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • It is possible with $1$ closed interval.
    – Jonas Meyer
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:02










  • Okay, $[a, a]$ and unbounded intervals don't count.
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:03







4




4




It is possible if you allow degenerate intervals $[a,a]$, of course.
– Henning Makholm
Oct 17 '14 at 22:02




It is possible if you allow degenerate intervals $[a,a]$, of course.
– Henning Makholm
Oct 17 '14 at 22:02












It is possible with $1$ closed interval.
– Jonas Meyer
Oct 17 '14 at 22:02




It is possible with $1$ closed interval.
– Jonas Meyer
Oct 17 '14 at 22:02












Okay, $[a, a]$ and unbounded intervals don't count.
– Nishant
Oct 17 '14 at 22:03




Okay, $[a, a]$ and unbounded intervals don't count.
– Nishant
Oct 17 '14 at 22:03










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
11
down vote



accepted










No.



Since $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$, within each interval $[a_i, b_i]$, we can select a single $q_i in mathbbQ$ with which
to "label" the interval. The set of $q_i$'s forms a subset of $mathbbQ$, which is countable.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Short and sweet. Thanks!
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04










  • Glad I could help!
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04






  • 1




    This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
    – Pete L. Clark
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:22






  • 1




    @PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:25










Your Answer




StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
);
);
, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: false,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);








 

draft saved


draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f978823%2fcan-mathbb-r-be-written-as-the-disjoint-union-of-uncountably-many-closed-in%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest






























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
11
down vote



accepted










No.



Since $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$, within each interval $[a_i, b_i]$, we can select a single $q_i in mathbbQ$ with which
to "label" the interval. The set of $q_i$'s forms a subset of $mathbbQ$, which is countable.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Short and sweet. Thanks!
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04










  • Glad I could help!
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04






  • 1




    This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
    – Pete L. Clark
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:22






  • 1




    @PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:25














up vote
11
down vote



accepted










No.



Since $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$, within each interval $[a_i, b_i]$, we can select a single $q_i in mathbbQ$ with which
to "label" the interval. The set of $q_i$'s forms a subset of $mathbbQ$, which is countable.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Short and sweet. Thanks!
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04










  • Glad I could help!
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04






  • 1




    This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
    – Pete L. Clark
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:22






  • 1




    @PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:25












up vote
11
down vote



accepted







up vote
11
down vote



accepted






No.



Since $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$, within each interval $[a_i, b_i]$, we can select a single $q_i in mathbbQ$ with which
to "label" the interval. The set of $q_i$'s forms a subset of $mathbbQ$, which is countable.






share|cite|improve this answer














No.



Since $mathbbQ$ is dense in $mathbbR$, within each interval $[a_i, b_i]$, we can select a single $q_i in mathbbQ$ with which
to "label" the interval. The set of $q_i$'s forms a subset of $mathbbQ$, which is countable.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 12 at 21:24

























answered Oct 17 '14 at 22:01









Kaj Hansen

27k43679




27k43679











  • Short and sweet. Thanks!
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04










  • Glad I could help!
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04






  • 1




    This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
    – Pete L. Clark
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:22






  • 1




    @PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:25
















  • Short and sweet. Thanks!
    – Nishant
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04










  • Glad I could help!
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 17 '14 at 22:04






  • 1




    This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
    – Pete L. Clark
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:22






  • 1




    @PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
    – Kaj Hansen
    Oct 19 '14 at 5:25















Short and sweet. Thanks!
– Nishant
Oct 17 '14 at 22:04




Short and sweet. Thanks!
– Nishant
Oct 17 '14 at 22:04












Glad I could help!
– Kaj Hansen
Oct 17 '14 at 22:04




Glad I could help!
– Kaj Hansen
Oct 17 '14 at 22:04




1




1




This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
– Pete L. Clark
Oct 19 '14 at 5:22




This shows more: it is not possible to have any uncountable family of pairwise disjoint closed subintervals in $mathbbR$. The same holds with closed balls in any separable metric space. :)
– Pete L. Clark
Oct 19 '14 at 5:22




1




1




@PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
– Kaj Hansen
Oct 19 '14 at 5:25




@PeteL.Clark, indeed it does! Basically the same problem came up for $mathbbR^n$ in class on Friday. :)
– Kaj Hansen
Oct 19 '14 at 5:25












 

draft saved


draft discarded


























 


draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f978823%2fcan-mathbb-r-be-written-as-the-disjoint-union-of-uncountably-many-closed-in%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest













































































這個網誌中的熱門文章

tkz-euclide: tkzDrawCircle[R] not working

How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

1st Magritte Awards