If $f$ is entire and $left|fleft(frac1ln(n+2)right)right|<frac1n$ for every positive integer $n$ then $f=0$

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Let $f(z)$ be an entire function satisfying



$$left|fleft(frac1ln(n+2)right)right|<frac1n$$ for every $ninmathbbN).$
Show that $f(z)=0.$




I need some help for this question, I am looking for some hints which helps to solve this problem (not for possible solution).



I know pretty much popular theorems about entire functions, such as Liuville theorem, Casorati-Weierstrass and some nameless theorems. However, for this question, I am not sure what approach is the key.



If I am not mistaken $fleft(frac1ln(z+2)right)$ has essential singularity at $z=-1$, so if I am right then maybe using Casorati-Weierstrass theorem is useful.



I can also say as $ntoinfty$, I get $|f(0)|leq 0$, so $f(0)=0$. Hence, If I can show $f$ is constant it must be identically $0$.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Hint: What is the behaviour of $|f(z)|$ when $|z|to0$ if the function $f$ is analytical at $0$ and such that $f(0)=0$?
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:44






  • 1




    (The tag (cauchy-schwarz-inequality) is unrelated.)
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:49














up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2













Let $f(z)$ be an entire function satisfying



$$left|fleft(frac1ln(n+2)right)right|<frac1n$$ for every $ninmathbbN).$
Show that $f(z)=0.$




I need some help for this question, I am looking for some hints which helps to solve this problem (not for possible solution).



I know pretty much popular theorems about entire functions, such as Liuville theorem, Casorati-Weierstrass and some nameless theorems. However, for this question, I am not sure what approach is the key.



If I am not mistaken $fleft(frac1ln(z+2)right)$ has essential singularity at $z=-1$, so if I am right then maybe using Casorati-Weierstrass theorem is useful.



I can also say as $ntoinfty$, I get $|f(0)|leq 0$, so $f(0)=0$. Hence, If I can show $f$ is constant it must be identically $0$.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Hint: What is the behaviour of $|f(z)|$ when $|z|to0$ if the function $f$ is analytical at $0$ and such that $f(0)=0$?
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:44






  • 1




    (The tag (cauchy-schwarz-inequality) is unrelated.)
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:49












up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2






2






Let $f(z)$ be an entire function satisfying



$$left|fleft(frac1ln(n+2)right)right|<frac1n$$ for every $ninmathbbN).$
Show that $f(z)=0.$




I need some help for this question, I am looking for some hints which helps to solve this problem (not for possible solution).



I know pretty much popular theorems about entire functions, such as Liuville theorem, Casorati-Weierstrass and some nameless theorems. However, for this question, I am not sure what approach is the key.



If I am not mistaken $fleft(frac1ln(z+2)right)$ has essential singularity at $z=-1$, so if I am right then maybe using Casorati-Weierstrass theorem is useful.



I can also say as $ntoinfty$, I get $|f(0)|leq 0$, so $f(0)=0$. Hence, If I can show $f$ is constant it must be identically $0$.







share|cite|improve this question















Let $f(z)$ be an entire function satisfying



$$left|fleft(frac1ln(n+2)right)right|<frac1n$$ for every $ninmathbbN).$
Show that $f(z)=0.$




I need some help for this question, I am looking for some hints which helps to solve this problem (not for possible solution).



I know pretty much popular theorems about entire functions, such as Liuville theorem, Casorati-Weierstrass and some nameless theorems. However, for this question, I am not sure what approach is the key.



If I am not mistaken $fleft(frac1ln(z+2)right)$ has essential singularity at $z=-1$, so if I am right then maybe using Casorati-Weierstrass theorem is useful.



I can also say as $ntoinfty$, I get $|f(0)|leq 0$, so $f(0)=0$. Hence, If I can show $f$ is constant it must be identically $0$.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 11 at 8:03









Did

242k23208443




242k23208443










asked Aug 11 at 4:58









Parisina

799921




799921







  • 1




    Hint: What is the behaviour of $|f(z)|$ when $|z|to0$ if the function $f$ is analytical at $0$ and such that $f(0)=0$?
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:44






  • 1




    (The tag (cauchy-schwarz-inequality) is unrelated.)
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:49












  • 1




    Hint: What is the behaviour of $|f(z)|$ when $|z|to0$ if the function $f$ is analytical at $0$ and such that $f(0)=0$?
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:44






  • 1




    (The tag (cauchy-schwarz-inequality) is unrelated.)
    – Did
    Aug 11 at 5:49







1




1




Hint: What is the behaviour of $|f(z)|$ when $|z|to0$ if the function $f$ is analytical at $0$ and such that $f(0)=0$?
– Did
Aug 11 at 5:44




Hint: What is the behaviour of $|f(z)|$ when $|z|to0$ if the function $f$ is analytical at $0$ and such that $f(0)=0$?
– Did
Aug 11 at 5:44




1




1




(The tag (cauchy-schwarz-inequality) is unrelated.)
– Did
Aug 11 at 5:49




(The tag (cauchy-schwarz-inequality) is unrelated.)
– Did
Aug 11 at 5:49










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










By considering the limit as $nto +infty$ we have $f(0)=0$. If we assume $f(x)notequiv 0$ then $c_m x^m$, for some $minmathbbN^+$ and $c_mneq 0$, is the first non-zero term of the Maclaurin series of $f(x)$.
Let $M=left|c_mright|$ and $g(x)=fracf(x)x^m$.
$g(x)$ is entire and in a neighbourhood $U$ of the origin we have $left|g(x)right|geq fracM2$.
On the other hand we also have



$$ left|gleft(frac1log(n+2)right)right|leq fraclog(n+2)^mn, $$
so, no matter how small $M$ or $U$ are, for some large $n$ we get a contradiction.

It follows that $f(x)equiv 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:37







  • 1




    @Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:39










  • You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:44










  • @Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:54










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










By considering the limit as $nto +infty$ we have $f(0)=0$. If we assume $f(x)notequiv 0$ then $c_m x^m$, for some $minmathbbN^+$ and $c_mneq 0$, is the first non-zero term of the Maclaurin series of $f(x)$.
Let $M=left|c_mright|$ and $g(x)=fracf(x)x^m$.
$g(x)$ is entire and in a neighbourhood $U$ of the origin we have $left|g(x)right|geq fracM2$.
On the other hand we also have



$$ left|gleft(frac1log(n+2)right)right|leq fraclog(n+2)^mn, $$
so, no matter how small $M$ or $U$ are, for some large $n$ we get a contradiction.

It follows that $f(x)equiv 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:37







  • 1




    @Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:39










  • You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:44










  • @Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:54














up vote
2
down vote



accepted










By considering the limit as $nto +infty$ we have $f(0)=0$. If we assume $f(x)notequiv 0$ then $c_m x^m$, for some $minmathbbN^+$ and $c_mneq 0$, is the first non-zero term of the Maclaurin series of $f(x)$.
Let $M=left|c_mright|$ and $g(x)=fracf(x)x^m$.
$g(x)$ is entire and in a neighbourhood $U$ of the origin we have $left|g(x)right|geq fracM2$.
On the other hand we also have



$$ left|gleft(frac1log(n+2)right)right|leq fraclog(n+2)^mn, $$
so, no matter how small $M$ or $U$ are, for some large $n$ we get a contradiction.

It follows that $f(x)equiv 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:37







  • 1




    @Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:39










  • You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:44










  • @Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:54












up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






By considering the limit as $nto +infty$ we have $f(0)=0$. If we assume $f(x)notequiv 0$ then $c_m x^m$, for some $minmathbbN^+$ and $c_mneq 0$, is the first non-zero term of the Maclaurin series of $f(x)$.
Let $M=left|c_mright|$ and $g(x)=fracf(x)x^m$.
$g(x)$ is entire and in a neighbourhood $U$ of the origin we have $left|g(x)right|geq fracM2$.
On the other hand we also have



$$ left|gleft(frac1log(n+2)right)right|leq fraclog(n+2)^mn, $$
so, no matter how small $M$ or $U$ are, for some large $n$ we get a contradiction.

It follows that $f(x)equiv 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer












By considering the limit as $nto +infty$ we have $f(0)=0$. If we assume $f(x)notequiv 0$ then $c_m x^m$, for some $minmathbbN^+$ and $c_mneq 0$, is the first non-zero term of the Maclaurin series of $f(x)$.
Let $M=left|c_mright|$ and $g(x)=fracf(x)x^m$.
$g(x)$ is entire and in a neighbourhood $U$ of the origin we have $left|g(x)right|geq fracM2$.
On the other hand we also have



$$ left|gleft(frac1log(n+2)right)right|leq fraclog(n+2)^mn, $$
so, no matter how small $M$ or $U$ are, for some large $n$ we get a contradiction.

It follows that $f(x)equiv 0$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 11 at 6:25









Jack D'Aurizio♦

271k31266632




271k31266632











  • Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:37







  • 1




    @Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:39










  • You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:44










  • @Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:54
















  • Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:37







  • 1




    @Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:39










  • You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
    – Parisina
    Aug 11 at 6:44










  • @Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
    – Jack D'Aurizio♦
    Aug 11 at 6:54















Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
– Parisina
Aug 11 at 6:37





Dammit! In million years I can't solve it without any help! How am I supposed to be good in this stuff! would you tell me how?
– Parisina
Aug 11 at 6:37





1




1




@Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
– Jack D'Aurizio♦
Aug 11 at 6:39




@Parisina: you just have to get accustomed to some standard tricks, like dividing/multiplying by monomials, applying Cayley transforms, identifying entire functions with the list of the coefficients of their Maclaurin series etc. It just takes a bit of practice.
– Jack D'Aurizio♦
Aug 11 at 6:39












You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
– Parisina
Aug 11 at 6:44




You used the fact that the zeros of non zero analytic functions are of finite order, right? I can prove this one! Thanks alot!
– Parisina
Aug 11 at 6:44












@Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
– Jack D'Aurizio♦
Aug 11 at 6:54




@Parisina: exactly that. You're welcome :)
– Jack D'Aurizio♦
Aug 11 at 6:54












 

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