For independent RVs, does $E|X+Y|<infty$ imply $E|X|<infty$.

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Let $X,Y$ be independent random variables. Suppose $E|X+Y|$ is finite. Does it follow $E|X|<infty$?




I believe the answer is no and tried to come up with a counter-example. Below is my attempt where I couldn't complete. If it follows that $E|X|$ is finite, please ignore my attempt.



Attempt (Constants are ignored for readability.)

Let $X$ be defined on $mathbbN$ with distribution $P(X=k) = 1/k^2$. Note $EX = sum_k k/k^2=infty$.

Let $Y$ be identical to $X$. Distribution of $X+Y$ is given by;
beginequation
beginaligned
P(X+Y = z) &= sum_k=1^z-1 P(X=z-k)P(Y=k)\
&=sum_k=1^z-1 frac1(z-k)^2k^2
endaligned
endequation
Hence expected is given by;
beginequation
E(X+Y) = sum_z=2^inftysum_k=1^z-1 fracz(z-k)^2k^2
endequation
I couldn't argue that the sum is finite. Is above sum convergent?







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  • 1




    You may want $Y$ to have the same distribution as $-X$ for your potential counterexample to have any chance of working. Otherwise, here, you have $X,Y>0$, and $X+Y > X$, so that $mathbbE[X+Y] geq mathbbE[X] = infty$.
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:20














up vote
2
down vote

favorite













Let $X,Y$ be independent random variables. Suppose $E|X+Y|$ is finite. Does it follow $E|X|<infty$?




I believe the answer is no and tried to come up with a counter-example. Below is my attempt where I couldn't complete. If it follows that $E|X|$ is finite, please ignore my attempt.



Attempt (Constants are ignored for readability.)

Let $X$ be defined on $mathbbN$ with distribution $P(X=k) = 1/k^2$. Note $EX = sum_k k/k^2=infty$.

Let $Y$ be identical to $X$. Distribution of $X+Y$ is given by;
beginequation
beginaligned
P(X+Y = z) &= sum_k=1^z-1 P(X=z-k)P(Y=k)\
&=sum_k=1^z-1 frac1(z-k)^2k^2
endaligned
endequation
Hence expected is given by;
beginequation
E(X+Y) = sum_z=2^inftysum_k=1^z-1 fracz(z-k)^2k^2
endequation
I couldn't argue that the sum is finite. Is above sum convergent?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    You may want $Y$ to have the same distribution as $-X$ for your potential counterexample to have any chance of working. Otherwise, here, you have $X,Y>0$, and $X+Y > X$, so that $mathbbE[X+Y] geq mathbbE[X] = infty$.
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:20












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $X,Y$ be independent random variables. Suppose $E|X+Y|$ is finite. Does it follow $E|X|<infty$?




I believe the answer is no and tried to come up with a counter-example. Below is my attempt where I couldn't complete. If it follows that $E|X|$ is finite, please ignore my attempt.



Attempt (Constants are ignored for readability.)

Let $X$ be defined on $mathbbN$ with distribution $P(X=k) = 1/k^2$. Note $EX = sum_k k/k^2=infty$.

Let $Y$ be identical to $X$. Distribution of $X+Y$ is given by;
beginequation
beginaligned
P(X+Y = z) &= sum_k=1^z-1 P(X=z-k)P(Y=k)\
&=sum_k=1^z-1 frac1(z-k)^2k^2
endaligned
endequation
Hence expected is given by;
beginequation
E(X+Y) = sum_z=2^inftysum_k=1^z-1 fracz(z-k)^2k^2
endequation
I couldn't argue that the sum is finite. Is above sum convergent?







share|cite|improve this question















Let $X,Y$ be independent random variables. Suppose $E|X+Y|$ is finite. Does it follow $E|X|<infty$?




I believe the answer is no and tried to come up with a counter-example. Below is my attempt where I couldn't complete. If it follows that $E|X|$ is finite, please ignore my attempt.



Attempt (Constants are ignored for readability.)

Let $X$ be defined on $mathbbN$ with distribution $P(X=k) = 1/k^2$. Note $EX = sum_k k/k^2=infty$.

Let $Y$ be identical to $X$. Distribution of $X+Y$ is given by;
beginequation
beginaligned
P(X+Y = z) &= sum_k=1^z-1 P(X=z-k)P(Y=k)\
&=sum_k=1^z-1 frac1(z-k)^2k^2
endaligned
endequation
Hence expected is given by;
beginequation
E(X+Y) = sum_z=2^inftysum_k=1^z-1 fracz(z-k)^2k^2
endequation
I couldn't argue that the sum is finite. Is above sum convergent?









share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 11 at 1:25









Clement C.

47.2k33682




47.2k33682










asked Aug 11 at 0:44









Jo'

1519




1519







  • 1




    You may want $Y$ to have the same distribution as $-X$ for your potential counterexample to have any chance of working. Otherwise, here, you have $X,Y>0$, and $X+Y > X$, so that $mathbbE[X+Y] geq mathbbE[X] = infty$.
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:20












  • 1




    You may want $Y$ to have the same distribution as $-X$ for your potential counterexample to have any chance of working. Otherwise, here, you have $X,Y>0$, and $X+Y > X$, so that $mathbbE[X+Y] geq mathbbE[X] = infty$.
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:20







1




1




You may want $Y$ to have the same distribution as $-X$ for your potential counterexample to have any chance of working. Otherwise, here, you have $X,Y>0$, and $X+Y > X$, so that $mathbbE[X+Y] geq mathbbE[X] = infty$.
– Clement C.
Aug 11 at 1:20




You may want $Y$ to have the same distribution as $-X$ for your potential counterexample to have any chance of working. Otherwise, here, you have $X,Y>0$, and $X+Y > X$, so that $mathbbE[X+Y] geq mathbbE[X] = infty$.
– Clement C.
Aug 11 at 1:20










1 Answer
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Since $|X| le |X+Y| + |Y|$, $E[|X|] = E[ |X| mid Y] le E[|X+Y| mid Y] + E[|Y| mid Y]$
and $E[|X|] le E[|X+Y|] + E[|Y|]$



Suppose $E[|X+Y|] = R < infty$. Now $|X+Y| ge |X| - |Y|$, so
$$R = E[|X+Y|] ge E[|X|-|Y|] = E[E[|X|-|Y| mid Y]] = E[E[|X|] - |Y|]$$
But that implies $textProb(E[|X|]-|Y| le R) > 0$ and thus $E[|X|] le R + s < infty$ for some $s$ where $textProb(|Y|<s) > 0$.






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  • 1




    Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:24










  • For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
    – Jo'
    Aug 11 at 2:09










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Since $|X| le |X+Y| + |Y|$, $E[|X|] = E[ |X| mid Y] le E[|X+Y| mid Y] + E[|Y| mid Y]$
and $E[|X|] le E[|X+Y|] + E[|Y|]$



Suppose $E[|X+Y|] = R < infty$. Now $|X+Y| ge |X| - |Y|$, so
$$R = E[|X+Y|] ge E[|X|-|Y|] = E[E[|X|-|Y| mid Y]] = E[E[|X|] - |Y|]$$
But that implies $textProb(E[|X|]-|Y| le R) > 0$ and thus $E[|X|] le R + s < infty$ for some $s$ where $textProb(|Y|<s) > 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer
















  • 1




    Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:24










  • For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
    – Jo'
    Aug 11 at 2:09














up vote
1
down vote













Since $|X| le |X+Y| + |Y|$, $E[|X|] = E[ |X| mid Y] le E[|X+Y| mid Y] + E[|Y| mid Y]$
and $E[|X|] le E[|X+Y|] + E[|Y|]$



Suppose $E[|X+Y|] = R < infty$. Now $|X+Y| ge |X| - |Y|$, so
$$R = E[|X+Y|] ge E[|X|-|Y|] = E[E[|X|-|Y| mid Y]] = E[E[|X|] - |Y|]$$
But that implies $textProb(E[|X|]-|Y| le R) > 0$ and thus $E[|X|] le R + s < infty$ for some $s$ where $textProb(|Y|<s) > 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer
















  • 1




    Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:24










  • For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
    – Jo'
    Aug 11 at 2:09












up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Since $|X| le |X+Y| + |Y|$, $E[|X|] = E[ |X| mid Y] le E[|X+Y| mid Y] + E[|Y| mid Y]$
and $E[|X|] le E[|X+Y|] + E[|Y|]$



Suppose $E[|X+Y|] = R < infty$. Now $|X+Y| ge |X| - |Y|$, so
$$R = E[|X+Y|] ge E[|X|-|Y|] = E[E[|X|-|Y| mid Y]] = E[E[|X|] - |Y|]$$
But that implies $textProb(E[|X|]-|Y| le R) > 0$ and thus $E[|X|] le R + s < infty$ for some $s$ where $textProb(|Y|<s) > 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer












Since $|X| le |X+Y| + |Y|$, $E[|X|] = E[ |X| mid Y] le E[|X+Y| mid Y] + E[|Y| mid Y]$
and $E[|X|] le E[|X+Y|] + E[|Y|]$



Suppose $E[|X+Y|] = R < infty$. Now $|X+Y| ge |X| - |Y|$, so
$$R = E[|X+Y|] ge E[|X|-|Y|] = E[E[|X|-|Y| mid Y]] = E[E[|X|] - |Y|]$$
But that implies $textProb(E[|X|]-|Y| le R) > 0$ and thus $E[|X|] le R + s < infty$ for some $s$ where $textProb(|Y|<s) > 0$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 11 at 1:20









Robert Israel

305k22201443




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  • 1




    Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:24










  • For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
    – Jo'
    Aug 11 at 2:09












  • 1




    Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
    – Clement C.
    Aug 11 at 1:24










  • For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
    – Jo'
    Aug 11 at 2:09







1




1




Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
– Clement C.
Aug 11 at 1:24




Where do you use the conclusion of the first paragraph, in your argument?
– Clement C.
Aug 11 at 1:24












For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
– Jo'
Aug 11 at 2:09




For the last equality(in equation environment), don't we require $E|X|$ to be finite for $E[|X| mid Y]$ to be defined?
– Jo'
Aug 11 at 2:09












 

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