Derivative of the Inverse Cumulative Distribution Function for the Standard Normal Distribution

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
4
down vote

favorite
2












As the title says, I am trying to find the derivative of the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. I have this figured out for one particular case, but there is an extra layer of complexity that has be stumped.



Let $0 le p le 1$ and let $z = Phi^-1(p)$, where $Phi^-1(p)$ is the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. Then: $$fracpartial Phi^-1(p)partial p = left(fracpartial Phi(z)partial zright)^-1,$$ where $Phi(z)$ is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. This yields: $$= left(frac1sqrt2pi exp(-z^2/2) right)^-1 = fracsqrt2piexp(-z^2/2).$$



I think/hope this is right so far.



But now I have $p_1$ and $p_2$ and I need to find the derivative of $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_1$$ and $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_2.$$ Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    4
    down vote

    favorite
    2












    As the title says, I am trying to find the derivative of the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. I have this figured out for one particular case, but there is an extra layer of complexity that has be stumped.



    Let $0 le p le 1$ and let $z = Phi^-1(p)$, where $Phi^-1(p)$ is the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. Then: $$fracpartial Phi^-1(p)partial p = left(fracpartial Phi(z)partial zright)^-1,$$ where $Phi(z)$ is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. This yields: $$= left(frac1sqrt2pi exp(-z^2/2) right)^-1 = fracsqrt2piexp(-z^2/2).$$



    I think/hope this is right so far.



    But now I have $p_1$ and $p_2$ and I need to find the derivative of $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_1$$ and $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_2.$$ Any help would be appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      2









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite
      2






      2





      As the title says, I am trying to find the derivative of the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. I have this figured out for one particular case, but there is an extra layer of complexity that has be stumped.



      Let $0 le p le 1$ and let $z = Phi^-1(p)$, where $Phi^-1(p)$ is the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. Then: $$fracpartial Phi^-1(p)partial p = left(fracpartial Phi(z)partial zright)^-1,$$ where $Phi(z)$ is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. This yields: $$= left(frac1sqrt2pi exp(-z^2/2) right)^-1 = fracsqrt2piexp(-z^2/2).$$



      I think/hope this is right so far.



      But now I have $p_1$ and $p_2$ and I need to find the derivative of $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_1$$ and $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_2.$$ Any help would be appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question













      As the title says, I am trying to find the derivative of the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. I have this figured out for one particular case, but there is an extra layer of complexity that has be stumped.



      Let $0 le p le 1$ and let $z = Phi^-1(p)$, where $Phi^-1(p)$ is the inverse cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. Then: $$fracpartial Phi^-1(p)partial p = left(fracpartial Phi(z)partial zright)^-1,$$ where $Phi(z)$ is the cumulative distribution function for the standard normal distribution. This yields: $$= left(frac1sqrt2pi exp(-z^2/2) right)^-1 = fracsqrt2piexp(-z^2/2).$$



      I think/hope this is right so far.



      But now I have $p_1$ and $p_2$ and I need to find the derivative of $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_1$$ and $$fracpartial Phi^-1left(fracp_1p_1+p_2right)partial p_2.$$ Any help would be appreciated.







      derivatives normal-distribution inverse






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 26 '14 at 23:25









      Wolfgang

      14615




      14615




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          This can be done using chain rule, note that



          $$
          f(f^-1(x)) = x
          $$
          and therefore
          $$
          fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = fracddxx = 1 hspace5mm (1)
          $$
          and also by chain rule
          $$
          fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) hspace5mm (2)
          $$



          So by (1) and (2) we have
          $$
          beginalign
          f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) &= 1 \
          (f^-1)'(x) &= frac1f'(f^-1(x))
          endalign
          $$
          So in your case, with $f = Phi$ we have $(Phi^-1)'(x) = frac1Phi'(Phi^-1(x))$



          where for a standard normal distribution



          $$
          Phi^-1(x) = sqrt2erf^-1(2x-1)
          $$
          and $Phi'(x)$ is just the pdf of a standard normal, i.e.
          $$
          Phi'(x) = frac1sqrt2pie^-fracx^22
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer



























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            $Phi:mathbb R to (0,1)$ and $Phi^-1:(0,1) to mathbb R$ are strictly increasing continuous bijective functions



            If $z=Phi^-1(p)$ then $p=Phi(z)$ and $dfracdpdz=Phi^prime(z)=phi(z)$, so $dfracdzdp = dfrac1phi(z)= dfrac1phi(Phi^-1(p))$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















              Your Answer




              StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
              return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
              StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
              StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
              );
              );
              , "mathjax-editing");

              StackExchange.ready(function()
              var channelOptions =
              tags: "".split(" "),
              id: "69"
              ;
              initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

              StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
              // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
              if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
              StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
              createEditor();
              );

              else
              createEditor();

              );

              function createEditor()
              StackExchange.prepareEditor(
              heartbeatType: 'answer',
              convertImagesToLinks: true,
              noModals: false,
              showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
              reputationToPostImages: 10,
              bindNavPrevention: true,
              postfix: "",
              noCode: true, onDemand: true,
              discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
              ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
              );



              );













               

              draft saved


              draft discarded


















              StackExchange.ready(
              function ()
              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f910355%2fderivative-of-the-inverse-cumulative-distribution-function-for-the-standard-norm%23new-answer', 'question_page');

              );

              Post as a guest






























              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              0
              down vote













              This can be done using chain rule, note that



              $$
              f(f^-1(x)) = x
              $$
              and therefore
              $$
              fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = fracddxx = 1 hspace5mm (1)
              $$
              and also by chain rule
              $$
              fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) hspace5mm (2)
              $$



              So by (1) and (2) we have
              $$
              beginalign
              f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) &= 1 \
              (f^-1)'(x) &= frac1f'(f^-1(x))
              endalign
              $$
              So in your case, with $f = Phi$ we have $(Phi^-1)'(x) = frac1Phi'(Phi^-1(x))$



              where for a standard normal distribution



              $$
              Phi^-1(x) = sqrt2erf^-1(2x-1)
              $$
              and $Phi'(x)$ is just the pdf of a standard normal, i.e.
              $$
              Phi'(x) = frac1sqrt2pie^-fracx^22
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                This can be done using chain rule, note that



                $$
                f(f^-1(x)) = x
                $$
                and therefore
                $$
                fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = fracddxx = 1 hspace5mm (1)
                $$
                and also by chain rule
                $$
                fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) hspace5mm (2)
                $$



                So by (1) and (2) we have
                $$
                beginalign
                f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) &= 1 \
                (f^-1)'(x) &= frac1f'(f^-1(x))
                endalign
                $$
                So in your case, with $f = Phi$ we have $(Phi^-1)'(x) = frac1Phi'(Phi^-1(x))$



                where for a standard normal distribution



                $$
                Phi^-1(x) = sqrt2erf^-1(2x-1)
                $$
                and $Phi'(x)$ is just the pdf of a standard normal, i.e.
                $$
                Phi'(x) = frac1sqrt2pie^-fracx^22
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  This can be done using chain rule, note that



                  $$
                  f(f^-1(x)) = x
                  $$
                  and therefore
                  $$
                  fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = fracddxx = 1 hspace5mm (1)
                  $$
                  and also by chain rule
                  $$
                  fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) hspace5mm (2)
                  $$



                  So by (1) and (2) we have
                  $$
                  beginalign
                  f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) &= 1 \
                  (f^-1)'(x) &= frac1f'(f^-1(x))
                  endalign
                  $$
                  So in your case, with $f = Phi$ we have $(Phi^-1)'(x) = frac1Phi'(Phi^-1(x))$



                  where for a standard normal distribution



                  $$
                  Phi^-1(x) = sqrt2erf^-1(2x-1)
                  $$
                  and $Phi'(x)$ is just the pdf of a standard normal, i.e.
                  $$
                  Phi'(x) = frac1sqrt2pie^-fracx^22
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  This can be done using chain rule, note that



                  $$
                  f(f^-1(x)) = x
                  $$
                  and therefore
                  $$
                  fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = fracddxx = 1 hspace5mm (1)
                  $$
                  and also by chain rule
                  $$
                  fracddxf(f^-1(x)) = f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) hspace5mm (2)
                  $$



                  So by (1) and (2) we have
                  $$
                  beginalign
                  f'(f^-1(x)) cdot (f^-1)'(x) &= 1 \
                  (f^-1)'(x) &= frac1f'(f^-1(x))
                  endalign
                  $$
                  So in your case, with $f = Phi$ we have $(Phi^-1)'(x) = frac1Phi'(Phi^-1(x))$



                  where for a standard normal distribution



                  $$
                  Phi^-1(x) = sqrt2erf^-1(2x-1)
                  $$
                  and $Phi'(x)$ is just the pdf of a standard normal, i.e.
                  $$
                  Phi'(x) = frac1sqrt2pie^-fracx^22
                  $$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 7 '16 at 19:11









                  mgilbert

                  1104




                  1104




















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      $Phi:mathbb R to (0,1)$ and $Phi^-1:(0,1) to mathbb R$ are strictly increasing continuous bijective functions



                      If $z=Phi^-1(p)$ then $p=Phi(z)$ and $dfracdpdz=Phi^prime(z)=phi(z)$, so $dfracdzdp = dfrac1phi(z)= dfrac1phi(Phi^-1(p))$






                      share|cite|improve this answer
























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        $Phi:mathbb R to (0,1)$ and $Phi^-1:(0,1) to mathbb R$ are strictly increasing continuous bijective functions



                        If $z=Phi^-1(p)$ then $p=Phi(z)$ and $dfracdpdz=Phi^prime(z)=phi(z)$, so $dfracdzdp = dfrac1phi(z)= dfrac1phi(Phi^-1(p))$






                        share|cite|improve this answer






















                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          $Phi:mathbb R to (0,1)$ and $Phi^-1:(0,1) to mathbb R$ are strictly increasing continuous bijective functions



                          If $z=Phi^-1(p)$ then $p=Phi(z)$ and $dfracdpdz=Phi^prime(z)=phi(z)$, so $dfracdzdp = dfrac1phi(z)= dfrac1phi(Phi^-1(p))$






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          $Phi:mathbb R to (0,1)$ and $Phi^-1:(0,1) to mathbb R$ are strictly increasing continuous bijective functions



                          If $z=Phi^-1(p)$ then $p=Phi(z)$ and $dfracdpdz=Phi^prime(z)=phi(z)$, so $dfracdzdp = dfrac1phi(z)= dfrac1phi(Phi^-1(p))$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 5 at 11:58









                          Henry

                          94.1k472150




                          94.1k472150



























                               

                              draft saved


                              draft discarded















































                               


                              draft saved


                              draft discarded














                              StackExchange.ready(
                              function ()
                              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f910355%2fderivative-of-the-inverse-cumulative-distribution-function-for-the-standard-norm%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                              );

                              Post as a guest













































































                              這個網誌中的熱門文章

                              tkz-euclide: tkzDrawCircle[R] not working

                              How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

                              1st Magritte Awards