Is a nowhere dense set closed?

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I am trying to prove an equivalent weak version of Baire's category theorem which states that $:$





Every complete metric space is a set of second category or non-meagre.





I am trying to prove it using another version of Baire's category theorem which states that





Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Let $U_n _n geq 1$ be countable collection of open dense subsets of $X$. Then $$cap_n=1^infty U_n$$ is dense in $X$.





Now suppose that $X$ is complete. If $X$ was meagre then $$X= cup_n=1^infty V_n$$ where each $V_n$ in the union is a nowhere dense set. So $$cap_n=1^infty (X setminus V_n)= emptyset.$$ Now complement of a nowhere dense set is dense. So if nowhere dense sets are closed then we get a contradiction by the above theorem for otherwise $emptyset$ becomes dense in $X$ which is an impossibility. That will prove the weak equivalent version of Baire's category theorem which I have stated at the beginning.



Now my question is $:$



Is every nowhere dense set closed?



If it is so then why? Please help me in this regard.



Thank you in advance.










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  • 1




    Can't you remove a point from, say, the Cantor set to obtain a nowhere dense set that is not closed?
    – Bungo
    Sep 1 at 6:57






  • 1




    Even more simple: the set $S = 1/nmid ngeqslant 1$ is nowhere dense, but not closed: $0inoverline Ssetminus S$.
    – Fimpellizieri
    Sep 1 at 7:00







  • 1




    I mean: a nowhere dense set is a set such that its closure has empty interior. If they were all closed, what point would there be in keeping that terminological detour? "If and only if closed with empty interior" would be like lemma 1.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Sep 1 at 7:01











  • So what should be my argument to prove the required theorem?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:02










  • A nowhere dense set is not necessarily closed, but the closure of a nowhere dense set is still nowhere dense, and is of course closed. Does that help?
    – bof
    Sep 1 at 7:04














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am trying to prove an equivalent weak version of Baire's category theorem which states that $:$





Every complete metric space is a set of second category or non-meagre.





I am trying to prove it using another version of Baire's category theorem which states that





Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Let $U_n _n geq 1$ be countable collection of open dense subsets of $X$. Then $$cap_n=1^infty U_n$$ is dense in $X$.





Now suppose that $X$ is complete. If $X$ was meagre then $$X= cup_n=1^infty V_n$$ where each $V_n$ in the union is a nowhere dense set. So $$cap_n=1^infty (X setminus V_n)= emptyset.$$ Now complement of a nowhere dense set is dense. So if nowhere dense sets are closed then we get a contradiction by the above theorem for otherwise $emptyset$ becomes dense in $X$ which is an impossibility. That will prove the weak equivalent version of Baire's category theorem which I have stated at the beginning.



Now my question is $:$



Is every nowhere dense set closed?



If it is so then why? Please help me in this regard.



Thank you in advance.










share|cite|improve this question



















  • 1




    Can't you remove a point from, say, the Cantor set to obtain a nowhere dense set that is not closed?
    – Bungo
    Sep 1 at 6:57






  • 1




    Even more simple: the set $S = 1/nmid ngeqslant 1$ is nowhere dense, but not closed: $0inoverline Ssetminus S$.
    – Fimpellizieri
    Sep 1 at 7:00







  • 1




    I mean: a nowhere dense set is a set such that its closure has empty interior. If they were all closed, what point would there be in keeping that terminological detour? "If and only if closed with empty interior" would be like lemma 1.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Sep 1 at 7:01











  • So what should be my argument to prove the required theorem?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:02










  • A nowhere dense set is not necessarily closed, but the closure of a nowhere dense set is still nowhere dense, and is of course closed. Does that help?
    – bof
    Sep 1 at 7:04












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am trying to prove an equivalent weak version of Baire's category theorem which states that $:$





Every complete metric space is a set of second category or non-meagre.





I am trying to prove it using another version of Baire's category theorem which states that





Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Let $U_n _n geq 1$ be countable collection of open dense subsets of $X$. Then $$cap_n=1^infty U_n$$ is dense in $X$.





Now suppose that $X$ is complete. If $X$ was meagre then $$X= cup_n=1^infty V_n$$ where each $V_n$ in the union is a nowhere dense set. So $$cap_n=1^infty (X setminus V_n)= emptyset.$$ Now complement of a nowhere dense set is dense. So if nowhere dense sets are closed then we get a contradiction by the above theorem for otherwise $emptyset$ becomes dense in $X$ which is an impossibility. That will prove the weak equivalent version of Baire's category theorem which I have stated at the beginning.



Now my question is $:$



Is every nowhere dense set closed?



If it is so then why? Please help me in this regard.



Thank you in advance.










share|cite|improve this question















I am trying to prove an equivalent weak version of Baire's category theorem which states that $:$





Every complete metric space is a set of second category or non-meagre.





I am trying to prove it using another version of Baire's category theorem which states that





Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. Let $U_n _n geq 1$ be countable collection of open dense subsets of $X$. Then $$cap_n=1^infty U_n$$ is dense in $X$.





Now suppose that $X$ is complete. If $X$ was meagre then $$X= cup_n=1^infty V_n$$ where each $V_n$ in the union is a nowhere dense set. So $$cap_n=1^infty (X setminus V_n)= emptyset.$$ Now complement of a nowhere dense set is dense. So if nowhere dense sets are closed then we get a contradiction by the above theorem for otherwise $emptyset$ becomes dense in $X$ which is an impossibility. That will prove the weak equivalent version of Baire's category theorem which I have stated at the beginning.



Now my question is $:$



Is every nowhere dense set closed?



If it is so then why? Please help me in this regard.



Thank you in advance.







metric-spaces complete-spaces baire-category






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Sep 1 at 6:58

























asked Sep 1 at 6:52









Arnab Chatterjee.

1,206318




1,206318







  • 1




    Can't you remove a point from, say, the Cantor set to obtain a nowhere dense set that is not closed?
    – Bungo
    Sep 1 at 6:57






  • 1




    Even more simple: the set $S = 1/nmid ngeqslant 1$ is nowhere dense, but not closed: $0inoverline Ssetminus S$.
    – Fimpellizieri
    Sep 1 at 7:00







  • 1




    I mean: a nowhere dense set is a set such that its closure has empty interior. If they were all closed, what point would there be in keeping that terminological detour? "If and only if closed with empty interior" would be like lemma 1.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Sep 1 at 7:01











  • So what should be my argument to prove the required theorem?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:02










  • A nowhere dense set is not necessarily closed, but the closure of a nowhere dense set is still nowhere dense, and is of course closed. Does that help?
    – bof
    Sep 1 at 7:04












  • 1




    Can't you remove a point from, say, the Cantor set to obtain a nowhere dense set that is not closed?
    – Bungo
    Sep 1 at 6:57






  • 1




    Even more simple: the set $S = 1/nmid ngeqslant 1$ is nowhere dense, but not closed: $0inoverline Ssetminus S$.
    – Fimpellizieri
    Sep 1 at 7:00







  • 1




    I mean: a nowhere dense set is a set such that its closure has empty interior. If they were all closed, what point would there be in keeping that terminological detour? "If and only if closed with empty interior" would be like lemma 1.
    – Saucy O'Path
    Sep 1 at 7:01











  • So what should be my argument to prove the required theorem?
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:02










  • A nowhere dense set is not necessarily closed, but the closure of a nowhere dense set is still nowhere dense, and is of course closed. Does that help?
    – bof
    Sep 1 at 7:04







1




1




Can't you remove a point from, say, the Cantor set to obtain a nowhere dense set that is not closed?
– Bungo
Sep 1 at 6:57




Can't you remove a point from, say, the Cantor set to obtain a nowhere dense set that is not closed?
– Bungo
Sep 1 at 6:57




1




1




Even more simple: the set $S = 1/nmid ngeqslant 1$ is nowhere dense, but not closed: $0inoverline Ssetminus S$.
– Fimpellizieri
Sep 1 at 7:00





Even more simple: the set $S = 1/nmid ngeqslant 1$ is nowhere dense, but not closed: $0inoverline Ssetminus S$.
– Fimpellizieri
Sep 1 at 7:00





1




1




I mean: a nowhere dense set is a set such that its closure has empty interior. If they were all closed, what point would there be in keeping that terminological detour? "If and only if closed with empty interior" would be like lemma 1.
– Saucy O'Path
Sep 1 at 7:01





I mean: a nowhere dense set is a set such that its closure has empty interior. If they were all closed, what point would there be in keeping that terminological detour? "If and only if closed with empty interior" would be like lemma 1.
– Saucy O'Path
Sep 1 at 7:01













So what should be my argument to prove the required theorem?
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Sep 1 at 7:02




So what should be my argument to prove the required theorem?
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Sep 1 at 7:02












A nowhere dense set is not necessarily closed, but the closure of a nowhere dense set is still nowhere dense, and is of course closed. Does that help?
– bof
Sep 1 at 7:04




A nowhere dense set is not necessarily closed, but the closure of a nowhere dense set is still nowhere dense, and is of course closed. Does that help?
– bof
Sep 1 at 7:04










1 Answer
1






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2
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accepted










Hint: To fix your argument, consider $overlineV_n$ rather than $V_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:15











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Hint: To fix your argument, consider $overlineV_n$ rather than $V_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:15















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Hint: To fix your argument, consider $overlineV_n$ rather than $V_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:15













up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Hint: To fix your argument, consider $overlineV_n$ rather than $V_n$.






share|cite|improve this answer












Hint: To fix your argument, consider $overlineV_n$ rather than $V_n$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Sep 1 at 7:04









Fimpellizieri

16.9k11835




16.9k11835











  • I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:15

















  • I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
    – Arnab Chatterjee.
    Sep 1 at 7:15
















I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Sep 1 at 7:15





I have already understood it. See my above comment @Fimpellizieri. Thanks for your answer.
– Arnab Chatterjee.
Sep 1 at 7:15


















 

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