Is inclusion in a cone an embedding?

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In Tom Dieck's algebraic topology, pg 92, he defines and states




The (pointed) cone $CX$ over $X$ is $X times I/ X times 0 cup * times I$. The inclusion $i_1^X: X rightarrow CX , x mapsto (x,1)$ is an embedding.




Why is this true? In fact if we take $C$ to be closed in $X$, let $q:X times I rightarrow CX$ denote the quotient map, then $$q^-1[i_1[C]]= C times 1 cup * times I$$ if $* in C$. $i_1$ is not necessarily a closed map to its image, hence not an embedding.



Note: no where does Tom Dieck states he is working in category of CGWH spaces. Otherwise this statement would be true as $*$ is closed in $X$.










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    In Tom Dieck's algebraic topology, pg 92, he defines and states




    The (pointed) cone $CX$ over $X$ is $X times I/ X times 0 cup * times I$. The inclusion $i_1^X: X rightarrow CX , x mapsto (x,1)$ is an embedding.




    Why is this true? In fact if we take $C$ to be closed in $X$, let $q:X times I rightarrow CX$ denote the quotient map, then $$q^-1[i_1[C]]= C times 1 cup * times I$$ if $* in C$. $i_1$ is not necessarily a closed map to its image, hence not an embedding.



    Note: no where does Tom Dieck states he is working in category of CGWH spaces. Otherwise this statement would be true as $*$ is closed in $X$.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      In Tom Dieck's algebraic topology, pg 92, he defines and states




      The (pointed) cone $CX$ over $X$ is $X times I/ X times 0 cup * times I$. The inclusion $i_1^X: X rightarrow CX , x mapsto (x,1)$ is an embedding.




      Why is this true? In fact if we take $C$ to be closed in $X$, let $q:X times I rightarrow CX$ denote the quotient map, then $$q^-1[i_1[C]]= C times 1 cup * times I$$ if $* in C$. $i_1$ is not necessarily a closed map to its image, hence not an embedding.



      Note: no where does Tom Dieck states he is working in category of CGWH spaces. Otherwise this statement would be true as $*$ is closed in $X$.










      share|cite|improve this question















      In Tom Dieck's algebraic topology, pg 92, he defines and states




      The (pointed) cone $CX$ over $X$ is $X times I/ X times 0 cup * times I$. The inclusion $i_1^X: X rightarrow CX , x mapsto (x,1)$ is an embedding.




      Why is this true? In fact if we take $C$ to be closed in $X$, let $q:X times I rightarrow CX$ denote the quotient map, then $$q^-1[i_1[C]]= C times 1 cup * times I$$ if $* in C$. $i_1$ is not necessarily a closed map to its image, hence not an embedding.



      Note: no where does Tom Dieck states he is working in category of CGWH spaces. Otherwise this statement would be true as $*$ is closed in $X$.







      general-topology algebraic-topology






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      edited Sep 1 at 8:23

























      asked Sep 1 at 8:02









      Cyryl L.

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          Let $X' = q(X times 1) subset CX$. We have to show that $j : X to X', j(x) = q(x,1)$, is a homeomorphism. It is obviously a continuous bijection. Let $A subset X$ be closed. We want to show that $j(A)$ is closed in $X'$. This means that there exists $B subset CX$ such that $B cap X' = j(A) = q(A times 1)$ and $q^-1(B)$ is closed in $X times I$.



          Case 1: $ast notin A$.



          Take $B = q(A times 1)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times 1$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times 1) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$.



          Case 2: $ast in A$.



          Take $B = q(A times I)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times I cup X times 0$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times I) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$. Note that $q(A times I) = q(A times 0, 1 cup ast times I) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1)) = q(A times 1) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1))$.



          BUT: $i_1^X : X to CX$ is in general not a closed embedding. It is one if and only if $q^-1(X') = X times 1 cup ast times I$ is closed in $X times I$. The latter is equivalent to $ast$ being closed in $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
            – Cyryl L.
            Sep 1 at 10:24










          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $X' = q(X times 1) subset CX$. We have to show that $j : X to X', j(x) = q(x,1)$, is a homeomorphism. It is obviously a continuous bijection. Let $A subset X$ be closed. We want to show that $j(A)$ is closed in $X'$. This means that there exists $B subset CX$ such that $B cap X' = j(A) = q(A times 1)$ and $q^-1(B)$ is closed in $X times I$.



          Case 1: $ast notin A$.



          Take $B = q(A times 1)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times 1$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times 1) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$.



          Case 2: $ast in A$.



          Take $B = q(A times I)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times I cup X times 0$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times I) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$. Note that $q(A times I) = q(A times 0, 1 cup ast times I) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1)) = q(A times 1) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1))$.



          BUT: $i_1^X : X to CX$ is in general not a closed embedding. It is one if and only if $q^-1(X') = X times 1 cup ast times I$ is closed in $X times I$. The latter is equivalent to $ast$ being closed in $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
            – Cyryl L.
            Sep 1 at 10:24














          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $X' = q(X times 1) subset CX$. We have to show that $j : X to X', j(x) = q(x,1)$, is a homeomorphism. It is obviously a continuous bijection. Let $A subset X$ be closed. We want to show that $j(A)$ is closed in $X'$. This means that there exists $B subset CX$ such that $B cap X' = j(A) = q(A times 1)$ and $q^-1(B)$ is closed in $X times I$.



          Case 1: $ast notin A$.



          Take $B = q(A times 1)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times 1$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times 1) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$.



          Case 2: $ast in A$.



          Take $B = q(A times I)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times I cup X times 0$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times I) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$. Note that $q(A times I) = q(A times 0, 1 cup ast times I) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1)) = q(A times 1) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1))$.



          BUT: $i_1^X : X to CX$ is in general not a closed embedding. It is one if and only if $q^-1(X') = X times 1 cup ast times I$ is closed in $X times I$. The latter is equivalent to $ast$ being closed in $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
            – Cyryl L.
            Sep 1 at 10:24












          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Let $X' = q(X times 1) subset CX$. We have to show that $j : X to X', j(x) = q(x,1)$, is a homeomorphism. It is obviously a continuous bijection. Let $A subset X$ be closed. We want to show that $j(A)$ is closed in $X'$. This means that there exists $B subset CX$ such that $B cap X' = j(A) = q(A times 1)$ and $q^-1(B)$ is closed in $X times I$.



          Case 1: $ast notin A$.



          Take $B = q(A times 1)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times 1$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times 1) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$.



          Case 2: $ast in A$.



          Take $B = q(A times I)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times I cup X times 0$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times I) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$. Note that $q(A times I) = q(A times 0, 1 cup ast times I) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1)) = q(A times 1) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1))$.



          BUT: $i_1^X : X to CX$ is in general not a closed embedding. It is one if and only if $q^-1(X') = X times 1 cup ast times I$ is closed in $X times I$. The latter is equivalent to $ast$ being closed in $X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let $X' = q(X times 1) subset CX$. We have to show that $j : X to X', j(x) = q(x,1)$, is a homeomorphism. It is obviously a continuous bijection. Let $A subset X$ be closed. We want to show that $j(A)$ is closed in $X'$. This means that there exists $B subset CX$ such that $B cap X' = j(A) = q(A times 1)$ and $q^-1(B)$ is closed in $X times I$.



          Case 1: $ast notin A$.



          Take $B = q(A times 1)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times 1$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times 1) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$.



          Case 2: $ast in A$.



          Take $B = q(A times I)$. Then $q^-1(B) = A times I cup X times 0$ is closed in $X times I$ and $B cap X' = q(A times I) cap q(X times 1) = q(A times 1)$. Note that $q(A times I) = q(A times 0, 1 cup ast times I) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1)) = q(A times 1) cup q((A backslash ast) times (0,1))$.



          BUT: $i_1^X : X to CX$ is in general not a closed embedding. It is one if and only if $q^-1(X') = X times 1 cup ast times I$ is closed in $X times I$. The latter is equivalent to $ast$ being closed in $X$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Sep 1 at 10:06

























          answered Sep 1 at 9:51









          Paul Frost

          4,838424




          4,838424











          • Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
            – Cyryl L.
            Sep 1 at 10:24
















          • Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
            – Cyryl L.
            Sep 1 at 10:24















          Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
          – Cyryl L.
          Sep 1 at 10:24




          Thanks a lot, some how I seem to have imagined $i_1:X rightarrow q(X times 1)$ is a quotient map. I completely ignored we are working in subspace topology...
          – Cyryl L.
          Sep 1 at 10:24

















           

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