$(1 cdot 2 cdot ⦠cdot m)^w+ (2 cdot 3 cdot ⦠cdot (m+1))^w+â¦+(n cdot(n+1)+ cdot ⦠cdot (n+m-1))^w=?$

Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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I started to read some book on elementary number theory and preliminary chapter asks to establish some formulas by mathematical induction:
There is this formula:
$$1+2+...+n= dfrac n(n+1)2$$
And this one:
$$ 1cdot 2 + 2cdot 3 + ... + ncdot (n+1)= dfrac n(n+1)(n+2)3$$
With some pencil-and-paper work I established that this should hold:
$$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1$$
I did not prove this formula that I established but just checked some cases and it seems to hold.
It can be written in the form of a hockey-stick identity, I think, so it holds.
Now, I know about generalization of first formula that goes like this (Faulhaberôs formula):
$$1^w + 2^w + ... + n^w=dfrac 1w+1 cdot displaystyle sum_j=0^w w+1 choose j B_j n^w+1-j$$
How do the generalization $$(1 cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m)^w+ (2 cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1))^w+...+(n cdot(n+1)+ cdot ... cdot (n+m-1))^w=?$$ look like? That is, what is on the right side?
elementary-number-theory
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up vote
3
down vote
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I started to read some book on elementary number theory and preliminary chapter asks to establish some formulas by mathematical induction:
There is this formula:
$$1+2+...+n= dfrac n(n+1)2$$
And this one:
$$ 1cdot 2 + 2cdot 3 + ... + ncdot (n+1)= dfrac n(n+1)(n+2)3$$
With some pencil-and-paper work I established that this should hold:
$$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1$$
I did not prove this formula that I established but just checked some cases and it seems to hold.
It can be written in the form of a hockey-stick identity, I think, so it holds.
Now, I know about generalization of first formula that goes like this (Faulhaberôs formula):
$$1^w + 2^w + ... + n^w=dfrac 1w+1 cdot displaystyle sum_j=0^w w+1 choose j B_j n^w+1-j$$
How do the generalization $$(1 cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m)^w+ (2 cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1))^w+...+(n cdot(n+1)+ cdot ... cdot (n+m-1))^w=?$$ look like? That is, what is on the right side?
elementary-number-theory
So to restate, your question is $sum_i=0^n-1(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$; correct? Or is it $sum_i=0^n(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$? Because your first terms all have $m$ consecutive factors and your final term has $(m+1)$ consecutive factors.
â Keith Backman
Sep 1 at 2:33
@KeithBackman Corrected, thanks.
â Right
Sep 1 at 8:44
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
up vote
3
down vote
favorite
I started to read some book on elementary number theory and preliminary chapter asks to establish some formulas by mathematical induction:
There is this formula:
$$1+2+...+n= dfrac n(n+1)2$$
And this one:
$$ 1cdot 2 + 2cdot 3 + ... + ncdot (n+1)= dfrac n(n+1)(n+2)3$$
With some pencil-and-paper work I established that this should hold:
$$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1$$
I did not prove this formula that I established but just checked some cases and it seems to hold.
It can be written in the form of a hockey-stick identity, I think, so it holds.
Now, I know about generalization of first formula that goes like this (Faulhaberôs formula):
$$1^w + 2^w + ... + n^w=dfrac 1w+1 cdot displaystyle sum_j=0^w w+1 choose j B_j n^w+1-j$$
How do the generalization $$(1 cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m)^w+ (2 cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1))^w+...+(n cdot(n+1)+ cdot ... cdot (n+m-1))^w=?$$ look like? That is, what is on the right side?
elementary-number-theory
I started to read some book on elementary number theory and preliminary chapter asks to establish some formulas by mathematical induction:
There is this formula:
$$1+2+...+n= dfrac n(n+1)2$$
And this one:
$$ 1cdot 2 + 2cdot 3 + ... + ncdot (n+1)= dfrac n(n+1)(n+2)3$$
With some pencil-and-paper work I established that this should hold:
$$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1$$
I did not prove this formula that I established but just checked some cases and it seems to hold.
It can be written in the form of a hockey-stick identity, I think, so it holds.
Now, I know about generalization of first formula that goes like this (Faulhaberôs formula):
$$1^w + 2^w + ... + n^w=dfrac 1w+1 cdot displaystyle sum_j=0^w w+1 choose j B_j n^w+1-j$$
How do the generalization $$(1 cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m)^w+ (2 cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1))^w+...+(n cdot(n+1)+ cdot ... cdot (n+m-1))^w=?$$ look like? That is, what is on the right side?
elementary-number-theory
elementary-number-theory
edited Sep 1 at 8:44
asked Sep 1 at 0:25
Right
1,061213
1,061213
So to restate, your question is $sum_i=0^n-1(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$; correct? Or is it $sum_i=0^n(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$? Because your first terms all have $m$ consecutive factors and your final term has $(m+1)$ consecutive factors.
â Keith Backman
Sep 1 at 2:33
@KeithBackman Corrected, thanks.
â Right
Sep 1 at 8:44
add a comment |Â
So to restate, your question is $sum_i=0^n-1(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$; correct? Or is it $sum_i=0^n(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$? Because your first terms all have $m$ consecutive factors and your final term has $(m+1)$ consecutive factors.
â Keith Backman
Sep 1 at 2:33
@KeithBackman Corrected, thanks.
â Right
Sep 1 at 8:44
So to restate, your question is $sum_i=0^n-1(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$; correct? Or is it $sum_i=0^n(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$? Because your first terms all have $m$ consecutive factors and your final term has $(m+1)$ consecutive factors.
â Keith Backman
Sep 1 at 2:33
So to restate, your question is $sum_i=0^n-1(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$; correct? Or is it $sum_i=0^n(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$? Because your first terms all have $m$ consecutive factors and your final term has $(m+1)$ consecutive factors.
â Keith Backman
Sep 1 at 2:33
@KeithBackman Corrected, thanks.
â Right
Sep 1 at 8:44
@KeithBackman Corrected, thanks.
â Right
Sep 1 at 8:44
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
I think there is no simple closed form. Using your notation, if we denote
$$w=a_1$$
$$sumlimits_q=1^m a_q=b_m$$
so
$$sumlimits_k=1^n left(fracm+k-1k-1right)^w=sumlimits_s=1^m-1sumlimits_a_s+1=0^a_sfraca_1!a_m!prodlimits_t=1^m-1frac1(a_t-a_t+1)!left(left[a_1atop a_m-t+1right]right)^a_t-a_t+1sumlimits_k=1^nk^b_m$$
which is a little bit ugly.
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For your first conjecture:
Write
$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1
$
in the form
$s(n, m)
=t(n, m)
$
where
$s(n, m)
=sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j
$
and
$t(n, m)
=dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1
$.
I will prove this
by induction on $n$.
For $n=1$
this is
$=prod_j=1^m j
=dfracprod_j=1^1+mjm+1
$
or
$m! = dfrac(m+1)!m+1
$
so that
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$.
Consider
$beginarray\
s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)
&=sum_k=1^n+1 prod_j=k^k+m-1 j-sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+m j\
endarray
$
and
$beginarray\
t(n+1, m)-t(n, m)
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mjm+1-dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mj-prod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft((n+1+m)-nright)m+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft(m+1right)m+1\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+mj\
&=s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)\
endarray
$
Since
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$,
this shows that
$s(n, m) = t(n, m)$.
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
I think there is no simple closed form. Using your notation, if we denote
$$w=a_1$$
$$sumlimits_q=1^m a_q=b_m$$
so
$$sumlimits_k=1^n left(fracm+k-1k-1right)^w=sumlimits_s=1^m-1sumlimits_a_s+1=0^a_sfraca_1!a_m!prodlimits_t=1^m-1frac1(a_t-a_t+1)!left(left[a_1atop a_m-t+1right]right)^a_t-a_t+1sumlimits_k=1^nk^b_m$$
which is a little bit ugly.
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I think there is no simple closed form. Using your notation, if we denote
$$w=a_1$$
$$sumlimits_q=1^m a_q=b_m$$
so
$$sumlimits_k=1^n left(fracm+k-1k-1right)^w=sumlimits_s=1^m-1sumlimits_a_s+1=0^a_sfraca_1!a_m!prodlimits_t=1^m-1frac1(a_t-a_t+1)!left(left[a_1atop a_m-t+1right]right)^a_t-a_t+1sumlimits_k=1^nk^b_m$$
which is a little bit ugly.
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
I think there is no simple closed form. Using your notation, if we denote
$$w=a_1$$
$$sumlimits_q=1^m a_q=b_m$$
so
$$sumlimits_k=1^n left(fracm+k-1k-1right)^w=sumlimits_s=1^m-1sumlimits_a_s+1=0^a_sfraca_1!a_m!prodlimits_t=1^m-1frac1(a_t-a_t+1)!left(left[a_1atop a_m-t+1right]right)^a_t-a_t+1sumlimits_k=1^nk^b_m$$
which is a little bit ugly.
I think there is no simple closed form. Using your notation, if we denote
$$w=a_1$$
$$sumlimits_q=1^m a_q=b_m$$
so
$$sumlimits_k=1^n left(fracm+k-1k-1right)^w=sumlimits_s=1^m-1sumlimits_a_s+1=0^a_sfraca_1!a_m!prodlimits_t=1^m-1frac1(a_t-a_t+1)!left(left[a_1atop a_m-t+1right]right)^a_t-a_t+1sumlimits_k=1^nk^b_m$$
which is a little bit ugly.
edited Sep 2 at 2:06
answered Sep 1 at 21:13
user514787
58410
58410
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
add a comment |Â
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post. - From Review
â Isaac Browne
Sep 1 at 22:19
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
@IsaacBrowne, thank you.
â user514787
Sep 1 at 23:26
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
Better now, thanks to you!
â Isaac Browne
Sep 3 at 4:36
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For your first conjecture:
Write
$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1
$
in the form
$s(n, m)
=t(n, m)
$
where
$s(n, m)
=sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j
$
and
$t(n, m)
=dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1
$.
I will prove this
by induction on $n$.
For $n=1$
this is
$=prod_j=1^m j
=dfracprod_j=1^1+mjm+1
$
or
$m! = dfrac(m+1)!m+1
$
so that
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$.
Consider
$beginarray\
s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)
&=sum_k=1^n+1 prod_j=k^k+m-1 j-sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+m j\
endarray
$
and
$beginarray\
t(n+1, m)-t(n, m)
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mjm+1-dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mj-prod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft((n+1+m)-nright)m+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft(m+1right)m+1\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+mj\
&=s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)\
endarray
$
Since
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$,
this shows that
$s(n, m) = t(n, m)$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
For your first conjecture:
Write
$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1
$
in the form
$s(n, m)
=t(n, m)
$
where
$s(n, m)
=sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j
$
and
$t(n, m)
=dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1
$.
I will prove this
by induction on $n$.
For $n=1$
this is
$=prod_j=1^m j
=dfracprod_j=1^1+mjm+1
$
or
$m! = dfrac(m+1)!m+1
$
so that
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$.
Consider
$beginarray\
s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)
&=sum_k=1^n+1 prod_j=k^k+m-1 j-sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+m j\
endarray
$
and
$beginarray\
t(n+1, m)-t(n, m)
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mjm+1-dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mj-prod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft((n+1+m)-nright)m+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft(m+1right)m+1\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+mj\
&=s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)\
endarray
$
Since
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$,
this shows that
$s(n, m) = t(n, m)$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
For your first conjecture:
Write
$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1
$
in the form
$s(n, m)
=t(n, m)
$
where
$s(n, m)
=sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j
$
and
$t(n, m)
=dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1
$.
I will prove this
by induction on $n$.
For $n=1$
this is
$=prod_j=1^m j
=dfracprod_j=1^1+mjm+1
$
or
$m! = dfrac(m+1)!m+1
$
so that
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$.
Consider
$beginarray\
s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)
&=sum_k=1^n+1 prod_j=k^k+m-1 j-sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+m j\
endarray
$
and
$beginarray\
t(n+1, m)-t(n, m)
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mjm+1-dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mj-prod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft((n+1+m)-nright)m+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft(m+1right)m+1\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+mj\
&=s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)\
endarray
$
Since
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$,
this shows that
$s(n, m) = t(n, m)$.
For your first conjecture:
Write
$1cdot 2 cdot ... cdot m + 2cdot 3 cdot ... cdot (m+1) + ... + n cdot (n+1) cdot ... cdot (n+m-1)= dfrac n(n+1)...(n+m-1)(n+m)m+1
$
in the form
$s(n, m)
=t(n, m)
$
where
$s(n, m)
=sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j
$
and
$t(n, m)
=dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1
$.
I will prove this
by induction on $n$.
For $n=1$
this is
$=prod_j=1^m j
=dfracprod_j=1^1+mjm+1
$
or
$m! = dfrac(m+1)!m+1
$
so that
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$.
Consider
$beginarray\
s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)
&=sum_k=1^n+1 prod_j=k^k+m-1 j-sum_k=1^n prod_j=k^k+m-1 j\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+m j\
endarray
$
and
$beginarray\
t(n+1, m)-t(n, m)
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mjm+1-dfracprod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+1+mj-prod_j=n^n+mjm+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft((n+1+m)-nright)m+1\
&=dfracprod_j=n+1^n+mjleft(m+1right)m+1\
&=prod_j=n+1^n+mj\
&=s(n+1,m)-s(n,m)\
endarray
$
Since
$s(1, m) = t(1, m)$,
this shows that
$s(n, m) = t(n, m)$.
answered Sep 2 at 4:56
marty cohen
70k446122
70k446122
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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So to restate, your question is $sum_i=0^n-1(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$; correct? Or is it $sum_i=0^n(frac (m+i)!i!)^w=?$? Because your first terms all have $m$ consecutive factors and your final term has $(m+1)$ consecutive factors.
â Keith Backman
Sep 1 at 2:33
@KeithBackman Corrected, thanks.
â Right
Sep 1 at 8:44