Show that the space of continuous functions on the compact Hausdorff space with matrix-value is a $C^*$-algebra

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Given $X=0 cup 1/n$. We can show that it is a compact Hausdorff space.
Now take $M_n$ to be the matrix algebra. I am confusing on showing that both $C(X, M_2)$ and $B=f in C(X, M_2)$ where $f(0)$ is diagonal$$ are $C^*$-algebras and finding the two-sided closed ideals with respect to each other.
I am trying to define the norm $||f||:=sup||f(x)||$ for all $xin X$ in which the right-hand side norm is just the operator norm defined for matrix algebra, for $f(x)$ is some matrices in $M_2$. So when calculating the operator norm, does it just mean to find the largest eigenvalue? Also take the $f^*(x)=barf(x)$, could anybody tell me how to move on for showing these two spaces are $C^*$-algebra? I understand we need to check the conditions for *-algebra, but what is the difference between these two examples?
matrices functional-analysis c-star-algebras banach-algebras
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Given $X=0 cup 1/n$. We can show that it is a compact Hausdorff space.
Now take $M_n$ to be the matrix algebra. I am confusing on showing that both $C(X, M_2)$ and $B=f in C(X, M_2)$ where $f(0)$ is diagonal$$ are $C^*$-algebras and finding the two-sided closed ideals with respect to each other.
I am trying to define the norm $||f||:=sup||f(x)||$ for all $xin X$ in which the right-hand side norm is just the operator norm defined for matrix algebra, for $f(x)$ is some matrices in $M_2$. So when calculating the operator norm, does it just mean to find the largest eigenvalue? Also take the $f^*(x)=barf(x)$, could anybody tell me how to move on for showing these two spaces are $C^*$-algebra? I understand we need to check the conditions for *-algebra, but what is the difference between these two examples?
matrices functional-analysis c-star-algebras banach-algebras
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Given $X=0 cup 1/n$. We can show that it is a compact Hausdorff space.
Now take $M_n$ to be the matrix algebra. I am confusing on showing that both $C(X, M_2)$ and $B=f in C(X, M_2)$ where $f(0)$ is diagonal$$ are $C^*$-algebras and finding the two-sided closed ideals with respect to each other.
I am trying to define the norm $||f||:=sup||f(x)||$ for all $xin X$ in which the right-hand side norm is just the operator norm defined for matrix algebra, for $f(x)$ is some matrices in $M_2$. So when calculating the operator norm, does it just mean to find the largest eigenvalue? Also take the $f^*(x)=barf(x)$, could anybody tell me how to move on for showing these two spaces are $C^*$-algebra? I understand we need to check the conditions for *-algebra, but what is the difference between these two examples?
matrices functional-analysis c-star-algebras banach-algebras
Given $X=0 cup 1/n$. We can show that it is a compact Hausdorff space.
Now take $M_n$ to be the matrix algebra. I am confusing on showing that both $C(X, M_2)$ and $B=f in C(X, M_2)$ where $f(0)$ is diagonal$$ are $C^*$-algebras and finding the two-sided closed ideals with respect to each other.
I am trying to define the norm $||f||:=sup||f(x)||$ for all $xin X$ in which the right-hand side norm is just the operator norm defined for matrix algebra, for $f(x)$ is some matrices in $M_2$. So when calculating the operator norm, does it just mean to find the largest eigenvalue? Also take the $f^*(x)=barf(x)$, could anybody tell me how to move on for showing these two spaces are $C^*$-algebra? I understand we need to check the conditions for *-algebra, but what is the difference between these two examples?
matrices functional-analysis c-star-algebras banach-algebras
edited Aug 16 at 13:55
asked Aug 15 at 4:03
Zelong Li
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455
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1 Answer
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I'll be assuming that your set is $X=0cup1/n: nin mathbb N$ (or did you really wanted $X$ with two points?)
The operator norm of a matrix is the largest eigenvalue only if the matrix is positive (or some special selfadjoint cases). In general, the operator norm of a matrix is the largest singular value.
Completeness: if $f_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, it follows that $f_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $M_2$ for each $x$. So convergent (because $M_2$ is complete) and there exists $f(x)=lim f_k(x)$. A typical $varepsilon$ argument shows that $f$ is continuous. For $B$ the argument is the same, and if $f_k(0)$ is diagonal for all $k$, then $f(0)$ is diagonal.
As $Bsubset C(X,M_2)$ and closed, all you need to do is show that it is a $*$-algebra.
The norm you defined is a norm, just using that the operator norm is a norm. Indeed, you have
$$
|f+g|=supf(x)+g(x).
$$
As $|f(x)+g(x)|leq |f(x)|+|g(x)|leq|f|+|g|$, the triangle inequality is proven. If $|f|=0$, then $f=0$ by definition of function. And $|lambda f|=|lambda|,|f|$ again follows from the fact that the operator norm is a norm.
The C$^*$-identity: I assume that the adjoint you want is $f^*(x)=f(x)^*$. Then
$$
|f^*f|=sup=sup^2: xin X=|f|^2.
$$
As for the ideals, since $M_2$ is simple, it is not hard to show in general that the (closed) ideals of $C(X,M_2)$ are of the form $$tag*I_Y=_Y=0,$$ where $Ysubset X$ is closed. The closed subsets of $X$ are those that
are finite; or,
are infinite and contain $0$
So any such $Y$ gives rise to an ideal of $C(X,M_2)$ via $(*)$.
As for ideals of $B$, note that if $Jsubset B$ is an ideal, then for each $xin X$, $$J_x=f(x): fin J$$ is an ideal of $M_2$. As the latter is simple, either $J_x=0$ or $J_x=M_2$. And $J_0$ is an ideal of $M_2$ that consists of diagonal matrices, so $J_0=0$. If $Y=x: J_x=0$, then $Y$ is closed (using the continuity of the functions), $0in Y$, and
$$tag**
J=fin B: f.
$$
Indeed, the argument above showed that the inclusion $subset$ holds. For the reverse inclusion, see the argument here.
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I'll be assuming that your set is $X=0cup1/n: nin mathbb N$ (or did you really wanted $X$ with two points?)
The operator norm of a matrix is the largest eigenvalue only if the matrix is positive (or some special selfadjoint cases). In general, the operator norm of a matrix is the largest singular value.
Completeness: if $f_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, it follows that $f_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $M_2$ for each $x$. So convergent (because $M_2$ is complete) and there exists $f(x)=lim f_k(x)$. A typical $varepsilon$ argument shows that $f$ is continuous. For $B$ the argument is the same, and if $f_k(0)$ is diagonal for all $k$, then $f(0)$ is diagonal.
As $Bsubset C(X,M_2)$ and closed, all you need to do is show that it is a $*$-algebra.
The norm you defined is a norm, just using that the operator norm is a norm. Indeed, you have
$$
|f+g|=supf(x)+g(x).
$$
As $|f(x)+g(x)|leq |f(x)|+|g(x)|leq|f|+|g|$, the triangle inequality is proven. If $|f|=0$, then $f=0$ by definition of function. And $|lambda f|=|lambda|,|f|$ again follows from the fact that the operator norm is a norm.
The C$^*$-identity: I assume that the adjoint you want is $f^*(x)=f(x)^*$. Then
$$
|f^*f|=sup=sup^2: xin X=|f|^2.
$$
As for the ideals, since $M_2$ is simple, it is not hard to show in general that the (closed) ideals of $C(X,M_2)$ are of the form $$tag*I_Y=_Y=0,$$ where $Ysubset X$ is closed. The closed subsets of $X$ are those that
are finite; or,
are infinite and contain $0$
So any such $Y$ gives rise to an ideal of $C(X,M_2)$ via $(*)$.
As for ideals of $B$, note that if $Jsubset B$ is an ideal, then for each $xin X$, $$J_x=f(x): fin J$$ is an ideal of $M_2$. As the latter is simple, either $J_x=0$ or $J_x=M_2$. And $J_0$ is an ideal of $M_2$ that consists of diagonal matrices, so $J_0=0$. If $Y=x: J_x=0$, then $Y$ is closed (using the continuity of the functions), $0in Y$, and
$$tag**
J=fin B: f.
$$
Indeed, the argument above showed that the inclusion $subset$ holds. For the reverse inclusion, see the argument here.
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I'll be assuming that your set is $X=0cup1/n: nin mathbb N$ (or did you really wanted $X$ with two points?)
The operator norm of a matrix is the largest eigenvalue only if the matrix is positive (or some special selfadjoint cases). In general, the operator norm of a matrix is the largest singular value.
Completeness: if $f_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, it follows that $f_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $M_2$ for each $x$. So convergent (because $M_2$ is complete) and there exists $f(x)=lim f_k(x)$. A typical $varepsilon$ argument shows that $f$ is continuous. For $B$ the argument is the same, and if $f_k(0)$ is diagonal for all $k$, then $f(0)$ is diagonal.
As $Bsubset C(X,M_2)$ and closed, all you need to do is show that it is a $*$-algebra.
The norm you defined is a norm, just using that the operator norm is a norm. Indeed, you have
$$
|f+g|=supf(x)+g(x).
$$
As $|f(x)+g(x)|leq |f(x)|+|g(x)|leq|f|+|g|$, the triangle inequality is proven. If $|f|=0$, then $f=0$ by definition of function. And $|lambda f|=|lambda|,|f|$ again follows from the fact that the operator norm is a norm.
The C$^*$-identity: I assume that the adjoint you want is $f^*(x)=f(x)^*$. Then
$$
|f^*f|=sup=sup^2: xin X=|f|^2.
$$
As for the ideals, since $M_2$ is simple, it is not hard to show in general that the (closed) ideals of $C(X,M_2)$ are of the form $$tag*I_Y=_Y=0,$$ where $Ysubset X$ is closed. The closed subsets of $X$ are those that
are finite; or,
are infinite and contain $0$
So any such $Y$ gives rise to an ideal of $C(X,M_2)$ via $(*)$.
As for ideals of $B$, note that if $Jsubset B$ is an ideal, then for each $xin X$, $$J_x=f(x): fin J$$ is an ideal of $M_2$. As the latter is simple, either $J_x=0$ or $J_x=M_2$. And $J_0$ is an ideal of $M_2$ that consists of diagonal matrices, so $J_0=0$. If $Y=x: J_x=0$, then $Y$ is closed (using the continuity of the functions), $0in Y$, and
$$tag**
J=fin B: f.
$$
Indeed, the argument above showed that the inclusion $subset$ holds. For the reverse inclusion, see the argument here.
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
I'll be assuming that your set is $X=0cup1/n: nin mathbb N$ (or did you really wanted $X$ with two points?)
The operator norm of a matrix is the largest eigenvalue only if the matrix is positive (or some special selfadjoint cases). In general, the operator norm of a matrix is the largest singular value.
Completeness: if $f_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, it follows that $f_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $M_2$ for each $x$. So convergent (because $M_2$ is complete) and there exists $f(x)=lim f_k(x)$. A typical $varepsilon$ argument shows that $f$ is continuous. For $B$ the argument is the same, and if $f_k(0)$ is diagonal for all $k$, then $f(0)$ is diagonal.
As $Bsubset C(X,M_2)$ and closed, all you need to do is show that it is a $*$-algebra.
The norm you defined is a norm, just using that the operator norm is a norm. Indeed, you have
$$
|f+g|=supf(x)+g(x).
$$
As $|f(x)+g(x)|leq |f(x)|+|g(x)|leq|f|+|g|$, the triangle inequality is proven. If $|f|=0$, then $f=0$ by definition of function. And $|lambda f|=|lambda|,|f|$ again follows from the fact that the operator norm is a norm.
The C$^*$-identity: I assume that the adjoint you want is $f^*(x)=f(x)^*$. Then
$$
|f^*f|=sup=sup^2: xin X=|f|^2.
$$
As for the ideals, since $M_2$ is simple, it is not hard to show in general that the (closed) ideals of $C(X,M_2)$ are of the form $$tag*I_Y=_Y=0,$$ where $Ysubset X$ is closed. The closed subsets of $X$ are those that
are finite; or,
are infinite and contain $0$
So any such $Y$ gives rise to an ideal of $C(X,M_2)$ via $(*)$.
As for ideals of $B$, note that if $Jsubset B$ is an ideal, then for each $xin X$, $$J_x=f(x): fin J$$ is an ideal of $M_2$. As the latter is simple, either $J_x=0$ or $J_x=M_2$. And $J_0$ is an ideal of $M_2$ that consists of diagonal matrices, so $J_0=0$. If $Y=x: J_x=0$, then $Y$ is closed (using the continuity of the functions), $0in Y$, and
$$tag**
J=fin B: f.
$$
Indeed, the argument above showed that the inclusion $subset$ holds. For the reverse inclusion, see the argument here.
I'll be assuming that your set is $X=0cup1/n: nin mathbb N$ (or did you really wanted $X$ with two points?)
The operator norm of a matrix is the largest eigenvalue only if the matrix is positive (or some special selfadjoint cases). In general, the operator norm of a matrix is the largest singular value.
Completeness: if $f_k$ is a Cauchy sequence, it follows that $f_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $M_2$ for each $x$. So convergent (because $M_2$ is complete) and there exists $f(x)=lim f_k(x)$. A typical $varepsilon$ argument shows that $f$ is continuous. For $B$ the argument is the same, and if $f_k(0)$ is diagonal for all $k$, then $f(0)$ is diagonal.
As $Bsubset C(X,M_2)$ and closed, all you need to do is show that it is a $*$-algebra.
The norm you defined is a norm, just using that the operator norm is a norm. Indeed, you have
$$
|f+g|=supf(x)+g(x).
$$
As $|f(x)+g(x)|leq |f(x)|+|g(x)|leq|f|+|g|$, the triangle inequality is proven. If $|f|=0$, then $f=0$ by definition of function. And $|lambda f|=|lambda|,|f|$ again follows from the fact that the operator norm is a norm.
The C$^*$-identity: I assume that the adjoint you want is $f^*(x)=f(x)^*$. Then
$$
|f^*f|=sup=sup^2: xin X=|f|^2.
$$
As for the ideals, since $M_2$ is simple, it is not hard to show in general that the (closed) ideals of $C(X,M_2)$ are of the form $$tag*I_Y=_Y=0,$$ where $Ysubset X$ is closed. The closed subsets of $X$ are those that
are finite; or,
are infinite and contain $0$
So any such $Y$ gives rise to an ideal of $C(X,M_2)$ via $(*)$.
As for ideals of $B$, note that if $Jsubset B$ is an ideal, then for each $xin X$, $$J_x=f(x): fin J$$ is an ideal of $M_2$. As the latter is simple, either $J_x=0$ or $J_x=M_2$. And $J_0$ is an ideal of $M_2$ that consists of diagonal matrices, so $J_0=0$. If $Y=x: J_x=0$, then $Y$ is closed (using the continuity of the functions), $0in Y$, and
$$tag**
J=fin B: f.
$$
Indeed, the argument above showed that the inclusion $subset$ holds. For the reverse inclusion, see the argument here.
answered Aug 15 at 14:37
Martin Argerami
116k1071165
116k1071165
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
 |Â
show 1 more comment
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
For the last link, it is trying to say that given $I$ to be an ideal of $C(X)$, the closed ideals of conti. functions defined on some closed vanishing subsets of $I$ coincides with $I$, that is, every closed ideal of $C(X)$ is just those closed ideals defined on some closed vanishing subsets of the given ideal, isn't?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:39
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I wouldn't say it like that, but yes. The ideals of $C(X)$ are given by the functons that are zero on a closed subset of $X$. Since the argument that is missing in my answer starts with a given $Y$, the technique in the linked answer still works.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:48
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
I am a little bit messed up with the definition, so plus there could also be many open ideals for a $C*$-algebra, right?
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 4:49
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
One may consider algebraic ideals, but they are hard to study and not really relevant for the C$^*$-algebra theory. As for open, an ideal is a subspace and a subspace can never be open unless it's the full space.
â Martin Argerami
Aug 16 at 4:57
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
Your answer makes me understand the problem deeply! thanks a lot!! :)
â Zelong Li
Aug 16 at 5:00
 |Â
show 1 more comment
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