Does nonstandard analysis allow for a more powerful second derivative test?

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The second-derivative test states that if $x$ is a real number such that $f'(x)=0$, then:
- If $f''(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
IâÂÂm wondering whether non-standard analysis, involving the hyperreal numbers, allows for a more powerful version of the second-derivative test, one that has fewer or no inconclusive cases. In terms of nonstandard analysis, the second derivative of $f$ is defined as the standard part of $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$ for any infinitesimal $epsilon$. But what if we omit the bit about the standard part? Fixing some infinitesimal $epsilon$, let $g(x)=fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$.
Then can we define a more powerful second derivative test as follows?
- If $g(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $g(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $g(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
Is this valid, and would this test apply to a greater class of functions than the regular second derivative test?
calculus real-analysis optimization maxima-minima nonstandard-analysis
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The second-derivative test states that if $x$ is a real number such that $f'(x)=0$, then:
- If $f''(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
IâÂÂm wondering whether non-standard analysis, involving the hyperreal numbers, allows for a more powerful version of the second-derivative test, one that has fewer or no inconclusive cases. In terms of nonstandard analysis, the second derivative of $f$ is defined as the standard part of $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$ for any infinitesimal $epsilon$. But what if we omit the bit about the standard part? Fixing some infinitesimal $epsilon$, let $g(x)=fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$.
Then can we define a more powerful second derivative test as follows?
- If $g(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $g(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $g(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
Is this valid, and would this test apply to a greater class of functions than the regular second derivative test?
calculus real-analysis optimization maxima-minima nonstandard-analysis
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
The second-derivative test states that if $x$ is a real number such that $f'(x)=0$, then:
- If $f''(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
IâÂÂm wondering whether non-standard analysis, involving the hyperreal numbers, allows for a more powerful version of the second-derivative test, one that has fewer or no inconclusive cases. In terms of nonstandard analysis, the second derivative of $f$ is defined as the standard part of $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$ for any infinitesimal $epsilon$. But what if we omit the bit about the standard part? Fixing some infinitesimal $epsilon$, let $g(x)=fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$.
Then can we define a more powerful second derivative test as follows?
- If $g(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $g(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $g(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
Is this valid, and would this test apply to a greater class of functions than the regular second derivative test?
calculus real-analysis optimization maxima-minima nonstandard-analysis
The second-derivative test states that if $x$ is a real number such that $f'(x)=0$, then:
- If $f''(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $f''(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
IâÂÂm wondering whether non-standard analysis, involving the hyperreal numbers, allows for a more powerful version of the second-derivative test, one that has fewer or no inconclusive cases. In terms of nonstandard analysis, the second derivative of $f$ is defined as the standard part of $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$ for any infinitesimal $epsilon$. But what if we omit the bit about the standard part? Fixing some infinitesimal $epsilon$, let $g(x)=fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon$.
Then can we define a more powerful second derivative test as follows?
- If $g(x)>0$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
- If $g(x)<0$, then $f$ has a local maximum at $x$.
- If $g(x)=0$, then the text is inconclusive.
Is this valid, and would this test apply to a greater class of functions than the regular second derivative test?
calculus real-analysis optimization maxima-minima nonstandard-analysis
asked Aug 15 at 5:19
Keshav Srinivasan
1,80811338
1,80811338
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let's take 1:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
False in general.1
This one works:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all positive infinitesmial $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
But (by the transfer principle) that is the same as this one, using only ordinary real numbers $epsilon$:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all sufficiently small positive real $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
1 Example: $f(x) = int_0^x t sin frac1t;dt$, so $fracfâÂÂ(0+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(0)epsilon = sinfrac1epsilon$, which is positive for some positive infinitesimal $epsilon$ and negative for some other positive infinitesimal $epsilon$.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let's take 1:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
False in general.1
This one works:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all positive infinitesmial $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
But (by the transfer principle) that is the same as this one, using only ordinary real numbers $epsilon$:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all sufficiently small positive real $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
1 Example: $f(x) = int_0^x t sin frac1t;dt$, so $fracfâÂÂ(0+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(0)epsilon = sinfrac1epsilon$, which is positive for some positive infinitesimal $epsilon$ and negative for some other positive infinitesimal $epsilon$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let's take 1:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
False in general.1
This one works:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all positive infinitesmial $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
But (by the transfer principle) that is the same as this one, using only ordinary real numbers $epsilon$:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all sufficiently small positive real $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
1 Example: $f(x) = int_0^x t sin frac1t;dt$, so $fracfâÂÂ(0+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(0)epsilon = sinfrac1epsilon$, which is positive for some positive infinitesimal $epsilon$ and negative for some other positive infinitesimal $epsilon$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
Let's take 1:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
False in general.1
This one works:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all positive infinitesmial $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
But (by the transfer principle) that is the same as this one, using only ordinary real numbers $epsilon$:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all sufficiently small positive real $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
1 Example: $f(x) = int_0^x t sin frac1t;dt$, so $fracfâÂÂ(0+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(0)epsilon = sinfrac1epsilon$, which is positive for some positive infinitesimal $epsilon$ and negative for some other positive infinitesimal $epsilon$.
Let's take 1:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
False in general.1
This one works:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all positive infinitesmial $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
But (by the transfer principle) that is the same as this one, using only ordinary real numbers $epsilon$:
If $fracfâÂÂ(x+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(x)epsilon > 0$ for all sufficiently small positive real $epsilon$, then $f$ has a local minimum at $x$.
1 Example: $f(x) = int_0^x t sin frac1t;dt$, so $fracfâÂÂ(0+epsilon)-fâÂÂ(0)epsilon = sinfrac1epsilon$, which is positive for some positive infinitesimal $epsilon$ and negative for some other positive infinitesimal $epsilon$.
answered Aug 15 at 11:56
GEdgar
58.6k264163
58.6k264163
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