Open unit ball in $C[0,1]$

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How to show



(i) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is not open in $(C[0,1],d_1)$



(ii) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_1)$ is open in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ ?,



where $d_1(f,g)=int_0^1 vert f(x)-g(x) vert dx$ and $d_infty (f,g)=textsup_x; vert f(x)-g(x) vert$




I know the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is "the set of all functions which are less than the unit distance from the zero function" and the figure look like this:(outline of the graph)enter image description here



Can I have a hint?







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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite
    1













    How to show



    (i) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is not open in $(C[0,1],d_1)$



    (ii) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_1)$ is open in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ ?,



    where $d_1(f,g)=int_0^1 vert f(x)-g(x) vert dx$ and $d_infty (f,g)=textsup_x; vert f(x)-g(x) vert$




    I know the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is "the set of all functions which are less than the unit distance from the zero function" and the figure look like this:(outline of the graph)enter image description here



    Can I have a hint?







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1






      How to show



      (i) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is not open in $(C[0,1],d_1)$



      (ii) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_1)$ is open in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ ?,



      where $d_1(f,g)=int_0^1 vert f(x)-g(x) vert dx$ and $d_infty (f,g)=textsup_x; vert f(x)-g(x) vert$




      I know the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is "the set of all functions which are less than the unit distance from the zero function" and the figure look like this:(outline of the graph)enter image description here



      Can I have a hint?







      share|cite|improve this question













      How to show



      (i) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is not open in $(C[0,1],d_1)$



      (ii) the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_1)$ is open in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ ?,



      where $d_1(f,g)=int_0^1 vert f(x)-g(x) vert dx$ and $d_infty (f,g)=textsup_x; vert f(x)-g(x) vert$




      I know the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],d_infty)$ is "the set of all functions which are less than the unit distance from the zero function" and the figure look like this:(outline of the graph)enter image description here



      Can I have a hint?









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 15 at 9:59









      Learning Mathematics

      612313




      612313




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

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          For 1) define $f_n (x) =nx$ for $0leq x leq frac 1 n$ and $0$ for other values of $x$. Note that the zero function $f$ is in the open unit ball for $d_infty$. Now $int_0^1|f_n-f|=frac 1 2n to 0$ and $|f_n|_infty=1$ for all $n$. Hence there is no $r>0$ such that $d_1(f,g) <r$ implies $g$ is in the open un it ball for $d_infty$. This proves 1).



          For 2) suppose $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx <1$. Let $r$ be a number between $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx$ and $1$. Then $|f-g|_infty <1-r$ implies $int_0^1 |g(x)| , dx<int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx +1-r <1$. This prove that the ball of radius $1-r$ around $f$ is contained in the open unit ball so $f$ is an interior point.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
            – Learning Mathematics
            Aug 15 at 10:40

















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Writing it out explicitly tends to make things clearer. Since the metrics involved are norms, let me write $|cdot|_p$ for the $p$ norm, and let $B_p$ be the open unit ball around 0 in the $p$ norm. For $(i)$, you want to find a function $f$ in $B_infty$ and a function $g$ with small 1-norm so that $f+gnotin B_infty$. Do you know of any positive functions that are huge in supremum norm but have small integral? You can take $f=0$.



          For $(ii)$, you should again just write everything out. This time, you need to show that if you have a function $f$ in $B_1$, then there is a radius $r$ that can depend on $f$, such that for any function $g$ with $|g|_infty < r$, that $|f+g|_1 < 1$. Try to finish the proof.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            For 1) define $f_n (x) =nx$ for $0leq x leq frac 1 n$ and $0$ for other values of $x$. Note that the zero function $f$ is in the open unit ball for $d_infty$. Now $int_0^1|f_n-f|=frac 1 2n to 0$ and $|f_n|_infty=1$ for all $n$. Hence there is no $r>0$ such that $d_1(f,g) <r$ implies $g$ is in the open un it ball for $d_infty$. This proves 1).



            For 2) suppose $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx <1$. Let $r$ be a number between $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx$ and $1$. Then $|f-g|_infty <1-r$ implies $int_0^1 |g(x)| , dx<int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx +1-r <1$. This prove that the ball of radius $1-r$ around $f$ is contained in the open unit ball so $f$ is an interior point.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
              – Learning Mathematics
              Aug 15 at 10:40














            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            For 1) define $f_n (x) =nx$ for $0leq x leq frac 1 n$ and $0$ for other values of $x$. Note that the zero function $f$ is in the open unit ball for $d_infty$. Now $int_0^1|f_n-f|=frac 1 2n to 0$ and $|f_n|_infty=1$ for all $n$. Hence there is no $r>0$ such that $d_1(f,g) <r$ implies $g$ is in the open un it ball for $d_infty$. This proves 1).



            For 2) suppose $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx <1$. Let $r$ be a number between $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx$ and $1$. Then $|f-g|_infty <1-r$ implies $int_0^1 |g(x)| , dx<int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx +1-r <1$. This prove that the ball of radius $1-r$ around $f$ is contained in the open unit ball so $f$ is an interior point.






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
              – Learning Mathematics
              Aug 15 at 10:40












            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted






            For 1) define $f_n (x) =nx$ for $0leq x leq frac 1 n$ and $0$ for other values of $x$. Note that the zero function $f$ is in the open unit ball for $d_infty$. Now $int_0^1|f_n-f|=frac 1 2n to 0$ and $|f_n|_infty=1$ for all $n$. Hence there is no $r>0$ such that $d_1(f,g) <r$ implies $g$ is in the open un it ball for $d_infty$. This proves 1).



            For 2) suppose $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx <1$. Let $r$ be a number between $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx$ and $1$. Then $|f-g|_infty <1-r$ implies $int_0^1 |g(x)| , dx<int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx +1-r <1$. This prove that the ball of radius $1-r$ around $f$ is contained in the open unit ball so $f$ is an interior point.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            For 1) define $f_n (x) =nx$ for $0leq x leq frac 1 n$ and $0$ for other values of $x$. Note that the zero function $f$ is in the open unit ball for $d_infty$. Now $int_0^1|f_n-f|=frac 1 2n to 0$ and $|f_n|_infty=1$ for all $n$. Hence there is no $r>0$ such that $d_1(f,g) <r$ implies $g$ is in the open un it ball for $d_infty$. This proves 1).



            For 2) suppose $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx <1$. Let $r$ be a number between $int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx$ and $1$. Then $|f-g|_infty <1-r$ implies $int_0^1 |g(x)| , dx<int_0^1 |f(x)| , dx +1-r <1$. This prove that the ball of radius $1-r$ around $f$ is contained in the open unit ball so $f$ is an interior point.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Aug 15 at 10:13









            Kavi Rama Murthy

            22.5k2933




            22.5k2933











            • Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
              – Learning Mathematics
              Aug 15 at 10:40
















            • Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
              – Learning Mathematics
              Aug 15 at 10:40















            Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
            – Learning Mathematics
            Aug 15 at 10:40




            Thank you Sir...! Which book contains this type of geometrical meaning behind in function spaces? Can you recommend any book or any other?
            – Learning Mathematics
            Aug 15 at 10:40










            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Writing it out explicitly tends to make things clearer. Since the metrics involved are norms, let me write $|cdot|_p$ for the $p$ norm, and let $B_p$ be the open unit ball around 0 in the $p$ norm. For $(i)$, you want to find a function $f$ in $B_infty$ and a function $g$ with small 1-norm so that $f+gnotin B_infty$. Do you know of any positive functions that are huge in supremum norm but have small integral? You can take $f=0$.



            For $(ii)$, you should again just write everything out. This time, you need to show that if you have a function $f$ in $B_1$, then there is a radius $r$ that can depend on $f$, such that for any function $g$ with $|g|_infty < r$, that $|f+g|_1 < 1$. Try to finish the proof.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Writing it out explicitly tends to make things clearer. Since the metrics involved are norms, let me write $|cdot|_p$ for the $p$ norm, and let $B_p$ be the open unit ball around 0 in the $p$ norm. For $(i)$, you want to find a function $f$ in $B_infty$ and a function $g$ with small 1-norm so that $f+gnotin B_infty$. Do you know of any positive functions that are huge in supremum norm but have small integral? You can take $f=0$.



              For $(ii)$, you should again just write everything out. This time, you need to show that if you have a function $f$ in $B_1$, then there is a radius $r$ that can depend on $f$, such that for any function $g$ with $|g|_infty < r$, that $|f+g|_1 < 1$. Try to finish the proof.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                2
                down vote










                up vote
                2
                down vote









                Writing it out explicitly tends to make things clearer. Since the metrics involved are norms, let me write $|cdot|_p$ for the $p$ norm, and let $B_p$ be the open unit ball around 0 in the $p$ norm. For $(i)$, you want to find a function $f$ in $B_infty$ and a function $g$ with small 1-norm so that $f+gnotin B_infty$. Do you know of any positive functions that are huge in supremum norm but have small integral? You can take $f=0$.



                For $(ii)$, you should again just write everything out. This time, you need to show that if you have a function $f$ in $B_1$, then there is a radius $r$ that can depend on $f$, such that for any function $g$ with $|g|_infty < r$, that $|f+g|_1 < 1$. Try to finish the proof.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Writing it out explicitly tends to make things clearer. Since the metrics involved are norms, let me write $|cdot|_p$ for the $p$ norm, and let $B_p$ be the open unit ball around 0 in the $p$ norm. For $(i)$, you want to find a function $f$ in $B_infty$ and a function $g$ with small 1-norm so that $f+gnotin B_infty$. Do you know of any positive functions that are huge in supremum norm but have small integral? You can take $f=0$.



                For $(ii)$, you should again just write everything out. This time, you need to show that if you have a function $f$ in $B_1$, then there is a radius $r$ that can depend on $f$, such that for any function $g$ with $|g|_infty < r$, that $|f+g|_1 < 1$. Try to finish the proof.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Aug 15 at 10:09









                Calvin Khor

                8,25711133




                8,25711133






















                     

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