Determine whether a sequence is bounded above

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If I want to determine whether a sequence, $a_n$, is bounded above $forall n in BbbN $, is it enough to find a sequence that is larger than $a_n$, and show that it converges and is therefore bounded? For example:



$forall n in BbbN, let,$



$$
a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1
$$
and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$, then 1 must be an upper bound for $a_n$. Is this correct? Thanks.







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  • You have shown that $a_n le 1$, no convergence or limit is needed here.
    – Martin R
    Aug 15 at 9:13











  • Incidentally you have for large $n$: $a_n $ $=H_2n-H_n$ $approx (log_e(2n) +gamma +frac14n)- (log_e(n)+gamma+frac12n)$ $=log_e(2) - frac14n$ $approx 0.693-frac14n$
    – Henry
    Aug 15 at 9:17















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












If I want to determine whether a sequence, $a_n$, is bounded above $forall n in BbbN $, is it enough to find a sequence that is larger than $a_n$, and show that it converges and is therefore bounded? For example:



$forall n in BbbN, let,$



$$
a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1
$$
and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$, then 1 must be an upper bound for $a_n$. Is this correct? Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • You have shown that $a_n le 1$, no convergence or limit is needed here.
    – Martin R
    Aug 15 at 9:13











  • Incidentally you have for large $n$: $a_n $ $=H_2n-H_n$ $approx (log_e(2n) +gamma +frac14n)- (log_e(n)+gamma+frac12n)$ $=log_e(2) - frac14n$ $approx 0.693-frac14n$
    – Henry
    Aug 15 at 9:17













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











If I want to determine whether a sequence, $a_n$, is bounded above $forall n in BbbN $, is it enough to find a sequence that is larger than $a_n$, and show that it converges and is therefore bounded? For example:



$forall n in BbbN, let,$



$$
a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1
$$
and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$, then 1 must be an upper bound for $a_n$. Is this correct? Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question














If I want to determine whether a sequence, $a_n$, is bounded above $forall n in BbbN $, is it enough to find a sequence that is larger than $a_n$, and show that it converges and is therefore bounded? For example:



$forall n in BbbN, let,$



$$
a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1
$$
and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$, then 1 must be an upper bound for $a_n$. Is this correct? Thanks.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 15 at 9:31









miracle173

7,17122247




7,17122247










asked Aug 15 at 9:00









FurryFerretMan

364




364











  • You have shown that $a_n le 1$, no convergence or limit is needed here.
    – Martin R
    Aug 15 at 9:13











  • Incidentally you have for large $n$: $a_n $ $=H_2n-H_n$ $approx (log_e(2n) +gamma +frac14n)- (log_e(n)+gamma+frac12n)$ $=log_e(2) - frac14n$ $approx 0.693-frac14n$
    – Henry
    Aug 15 at 9:17

















  • You have shown that $a_n le 1$, no convergence or limit is needed here.
    – Martin R
    Aug 15 at 9:13











  • Incidentally you have for large $n$: $a_n $ $=H_2n-H_n$ $approx (log_e(2n) +gamma +frac14n)- (log_e(n)+gamma+frac12n)$ $=log_e(2) - frac14n$ $approx 0.693-frac14n$
    – Henry
    Aug 15 at 9:17
















You have shown that $a_n le 1$, no convergence or limit is needed here.
– Martin R
Aug 15 at 9:13





You have shown that $a_n le 1$, no convergence or limit is needed here.
– Martin R
Aug 15 at 9:13













Incidentally you have for large $n$: $a_n $ $=H_2n-H_n$ $approx (log_e(2n) +gamma +frac14n)- (log_e(n)+gamma+frac12n)$ $=log_e(2) - frac14n$ $approx 0.693-frac14n$
– Henry
Aug 15 at 9:17





Incidentally you have for large $n$: $a_n $ $=H_2n-H_n$ $approx (log_e(2n) +gamma +frac14n)- (log_e(n)+gamma+frac12n)$ $=log_e(2) - frac14n$ $approx 0.693-frac14n$
– Henry
Aug 15 at 9:17











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










I think you mess up some ideas.



You say "and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$", but you never showed that $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$. And if you check the comment of Henry this seems to be wrong. But you don't need the limes.



You showed that



$$a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1$$
this means



$$a_nle 1,; forall n in BbbN$$



And this means that $a_n$ is bounded above by $1$. There is nothing else to show.



Remark 1:
An increasing sequence that is bounded above is convergent



We have
$$a_n+1=a_n+frac1(2n+1)(2n+2)$$
This means $$a_n+1>a_n$$ and so $a_n$ is monotone increasing. If a sequence is increasing and bounded above then the sequence is convergent.



Remark 2:
An convergent sequence is bounded



If a sequence $a_n$ converges to $a$ then there exists a number $N$ such that
$$mid a_n-amidle 1,; forall n>N$$
and so we have $$a_nle a+1,; forall n>N$$ and
$$a_nlemaxa_1,ldots,a_N,; forall nle N$$
and therefore the sequence $a_n$ is bounded by $$maxN,a_1,ldots,a_N$$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
    – FurryFerretMan
    Aug 15 at 10:54

















up vote
0
down vote













Yes, it is correct, we have $a_n le 1$ for all $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Yes, this is enough. If $(b_n)$ dominates $(a_n)$ and $b_n rightarrow b$, then there is $Sin mathbb R$ with $b_n<S$ for all $n in mathbb N$. Since $(b_n)$ dominates, we get $S>b_n geq a_n$, so $(a_n)$ is bounded as well.






    share|cite|improve this answer




















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      I think you mess up some ideas.



      You say "and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$", but you never showed that $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$. And if you check the comment of Henry this seems to be wrong. But you don't need the limes.



      You showed that



      $$a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
      frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1$$
      this means



      $$a_nle 1,; forall n in BbbN$$



      And this means that $a_n$ is bounded above by $1$. There is nothing else to show.



      Remark 1:
      An increasing sequence that is bounded above is convergent



      We have
      $$a_n+1=a_n+frac1(2n+1)(2n+2)$$
      This means $$a_n+1>a_n$$ and so $a_n$ is monotone increasing. If a sequence is increasing and bounded above then the sequence is convergent.



      Remark 2:
      An convergent sequence is bounded



      If a sequence $a_n$ converges to $a$ then there exists a number $N$ such that
      $$mid a_n-amidle 1,; forall n>N$$
      and so we have $$a_nle a+1,; forall n>N$$ and
      $$a_nlemaxa_1,ldots,a_N,; forall nle N$$
      and therefore the sequence $a_n$ is bounded by $$maxN,a_1,ldots,a_N$$






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
        – FurryFerretMan
        Aug 15 at 10:54














      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      I think you mess up some ideas.



      You say "and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$", but you never showed that $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$. And if you check the comment of Henry this seems to be wrong. But you don't need the limes.



      You showed that



      $$a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
      frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1$$
      this means



      $$a_nle 1,; forall n in BbbN$$



      And this means that $a_n$ is bounded above by $1$. There is nothing else to show.



      Remark 1:
      An increasing sequence that is bounded above is convergent



      We have
      $$a_n+1=a_n+frac1(2n+1)(2n+2)$$
      This means $$a_n+1>a_n$$ and so $a_n$ is monotone increasing. If a sequence is increasing and bounded above then the sequence is convergent.



      Remark 2:
      An convergent sequence is bounded



      If a sequence $a_n$ converges to $a$ then there exists a number $N$ such that
      $$mid a_n-amidle 1,; forall n>N$$
      and so we have $$a_nle a+1,; forall n>N$$ and
      $$a_nlemaxa_1,ldots,a_N,; forall nle N$$
      and therefore the sequence $a_n$ is bounded by $$maxN,a_1,ldots,a_N$$






      share|cite|improve this answer




















      • Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
        – FurryFerretMan
        Aug 15 at 10:54












      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted






      I think you mess up some ideas.



      You say "and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$", but you never showed that $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$. And if you check the comment of Henry this seems to be wrong. But you don't need the limes.



      You showed that



      $$a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
      frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1$$
      this means



      $$a_nle 1,; forall n in BbbN$$



      And this means that $a_n$ is bounded above by $1$. There is nothing else to show.



      Remark 1:
      An increasing sequence that is bounded above is convergent



      We have
      $$a_n+1=a_n+frac1(2n+1)(2n+2)$$
      This means $$a_n+1>a_n$$ and so $a_n$ is monotone increasing. If a sequence is increasing and bounded above then the sequence is convergent.



      Remark 2:
      An convergent sequence is bounded



      If a sequence $a_n$ converges to $a$ then there exists a number $N$ such that
      $$mid a_n-amidle 1,; forall n>N$$
      and so we have $$a_nle a+1,; forall n>N$$ and
      $$a_nlemaxa_1,ldots,a_N,; forall nle N$$
      and therefore the sequence $a_n$ is bounded by $$maxN,a_1,ldots,a_N$$






      share|cite|improve this answer












      I think you mess up some ideas.



      You say "and since $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$", but you never showed that $limlimits_ntoinfty1 = 1$. And if you check the comment of Henry this seems to be wrong. But you don't need the limes.



      You showed that



      $$a_n = frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n\
      frac1n+1 + frac1n+2 + ...+frac12n leq frac1n + frac1n + ...+frac1n = ncdotfrac1n=1$$
      this means



      $$a_nle 1,; forall n in BbbN$$



      And this means that $a_n$ is bounded above by $1$. There is nothing else to show.



      Remark 1:
      An increasing sequence that is bounded above is convergent



      We have
      $$a_n+1=a_n+frac1(2n+1)(2n+2)$$
      This means $$a_n+1>a_n$$ and so $a_n$ is monotone increasing. If a sequence is increasing and bounded above then the sequence is convergent.



      Remark 2:
      An convergent sequence is bounded



      If a sequence $a_n$ converges to $a$ then there exists a number $N$ such that
      $$mid a_n-amidle 1,; forall n>N$$
      and so we have $$a_nle a+1,; forall n>N$$ and
      $$a_nlemaxa_1,ldots,a_N,; forall nle N$$
      and therefore the sequence $a_n$ is bounded by $$maxN,a_1,ldots,a_N$$







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Aug 15 at 10:12









      miracle173

      7,17122247




      7,17122247











      • Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
        – FurryFerretMan
        Aug 15 at 10:54
















      • Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
        – FurryFerretMan
        Aug 15 at 10:54















      Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
      – FurryFerretMan
      Aug 15 at 10:54




      Thanks very much for this! The question I was tackling actually asked to show whether the sequence converges or not, and I had already shown that it was increasing, so it's good to get confirmation of that. The class I'm taking is an introduction to real analysis, and it's taking some getting used to! I appreciate the remarks, very helpful.
      – FurryFerretMan
      Aug 15 at 10:54










      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Yes, it is correct, we have $a_n le 1$ for all $n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        up vote
        0
        down vote













        Yes, it is correct, we have $a_n le 1$ for all $n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Yes, it is correct, we have $a_n le 1$ for all $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Yes, it is correct, we have $a_n le 1$ for all $n$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 15 at 9:06









          Fred

          37.9k1238




          37.9k1238




















              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Yes, this is enough. If $(b_n)$ dominates $(a_n)$ and $b_n rightarrow b$, then there is $Sin mathbb R$ with $b_n<S$ for all $n in mathbb N$. Since $(b_n)$ dominates, we get $S>b_n geq a_n$, so $(a_n)$ is bounded as well.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                Yes, this is enough. If $(b_n)$ dominates $(a_n)$ and $b_n rightarrow b$, then there is $Sin mathbb R$ with $b_n<S$ for all $n in mathbb N$. Since $(b_n)$ dominates, we get $S>b_n geq a_n$, so $(a_n)$ is bounded as well.






                share|cite|improve this answer






















                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Yes, this is enough. If $(b_n)$ dominates $(a_n)$ and $b_n rightarrow b$, then there is $Sin mathbb R$ with $b_n<S$ for all $n in mathbb N$. Since $(b_n)$ dominates, we get $S>b_n geq a_n$, so $(a_n)$ is bounded as well.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes, this is enough. If $(b_n)$ dominates $(a_n)$ and $b_n rightarrow b$, then there is $Sin mathbb R$ with $b_n<S$ for all $n in mathbb N$. Since $(b_n)$ dominates, we get $S>b_n geq a_n$, so $(a_n)$ is bounded as well.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 15 at 9:08









                  Babelfish

                  622115




                  622115






















                       

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