PDF of the Euclidean norm of $M$ normal distributions

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If $X_1, X_2, dots, X_M$ are independent identically distributed (i.i.d.) normal random variables, how to calculate the PDF and mean of the Euclidean norm of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_M$?



$$X_isim N(0,sigma^2)$$



$$Y=sqrtsum_i=1^M X_i^2$$



There is a similarity between $Y$ and the square root of the $chi$-squared distribution, i.e., the sum of the squares of $k$ independent standard normal random variables; however, in the case of $Y$, $sigma$ may not necessarily be $1$.



$$f_Y(y) = text?$$



$$E[Y] = text?$$







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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    If $X_1, X_2, dots, X_M$ are independent identically distributed (i.i.d.) normal random variables, how to calculate the PDF and mean of the Euclidean norm of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_M$?



    $$X_isim N(0,sigma^2)$$



    $$Y=sqrtsum_i=1^M X_i^2$$



    There is a similarity between $Y$ and the square root of the $chi$-squared distribution, i.e., the sum of the squares of $k$ independent standard normal random variables; however, in the case of $Y$, $sigma$ may not necessarily be $1$.



    $$f_Y(y) = text?$$



    $$E[Y] = text?$$







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      If $X_1, X_2, dots, X_M$ are independent identically distributed (i.i.d.) normal random variables, how to calculate the PDF and mean of the Euclidean norm of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_M$?



      $$X_isim N(0,sigma^2)$$



      $$Y=sqrtsum_i=1^M X_i^2$$



      There is a similarity between $Y$ and the square root of the $chi$-squared distribution, i.e., the sum of the squares of $k$ independent standard normal random variables; however, in the case of $Y$, $sigma$ may not necessarily be $1$.



      $$f_Y(y) = text?$$



      $$E[Y] = text?$$







      share|cite|improve this question














      If $X_1, X_2, dots, X_M$ are independent identically distributed (i.i.d.) normal random variables, how to calculate the PDF and mean of the Euclidean norm of $X_1,X_2,ldots,X_M$?



      $$X_isim N(0,sigma^2)$$



      $$Y=sqrtsum_i=1^M X_i^2$$



      There is a similarity between $Y$ and the square root of the $chi$-squared distribution, i.e., the sum of the squares of $k$ independent standard normal random variables; however, in the case of $Y$, $sigma$ may not necessarily be $1$.



      $$f_Y(y) = text?$$



      $$E[Y] = text?$$









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 15 at 12:30









      Rodrigo de Azevedo

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      12.6k41751










      asked Apr 15 '17 at 8:24









      arash.amd

      135




      135




















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          The fact that the variance of the normals is not one is immaterial. You could just compute everything for $sigma=1$ and then rescale $Yto sigma Y$ at the end. Recall that if $X$ is $N(0,sigma^2)$ then $X/sigma$ is $N(0,1).$ So $Y/sigma = sqrtsum _i(X_i/sigma)^2$ which is $chi^2(M).$



          So you just need to compute square root of a $chi^2(M).$ This is a usual change of variables. So let $Z$ be a $chi^2(M)$ and let $Y = sigmasqrtZ$ where I included the scaling factor. Then you can write the cumulative distribution for $Y$ as $$ F_Y(y) = P(Yle y) = P(sigmasqrt Z < y) = P(Z<y^2/sigma^2) = F_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $F_Z$ is the CDF for a $chi^2(M).$ To get the PDF, take the derivative: $$ f_Y(y) = F'_Y(y) = frac2ysigma^2F'_Z(y^2/sigma^2) = frac2ysigma^2f_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $f_Z$ is the PDF for a $chi^2(M).$



          The expectation can be computed by either integrating the above PDF or computing the expectation of the square root of a chi squared. Remember, you don't need to worry about the $sigma.$ The answer's going to be proportional to it... just do the computation with $sigma = 1$ and then scale by $sigma$ at the end.






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            1 Answer
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            active

            oldest

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            up vote
            1
            down vote



            accepted










            The fact that the variance of the normals is not one is immaterial. You could just compute everything for $sigma=1$ and then rescale $Yto sigma Y$ at the end. Recall that if $X$ is $N(0,sigma^2)$ then $X/sigma$ is $N(0,1).$ So $Y/sigma = sqrtsum _i(X_i/sigma)^2$ which is $chi^2(M).$



            So you just need to compute square root of a $chi^2(M).$ This is a usual change of variables. So let $Z$ be a $chi^2(M)$ and let $Y = sigmasqrtZ$ where I included the scaling factor. Then you can write the cumulative distribution for $Y$ as $$ F_Y(y) = P(Yle y) = P(sigmasqrt Z < y) = P(Z<y^2/sigma^2) = F_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $F_Z$ is the CDF for a $chi^2(M).$ To get the PDF, take the derivative: $$ f_Y(y) = F'_Y(y) = frac2ysigma^2F'_Z(y^2/sigma^2) = frac2ysigma^2f_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $f_Z$ is the PDF for a $chi^2(M).$



            The expectation can be computed by either integrating the above PDF or computing the expectation of the square root of a chi squared. Remember, you don't need to worry about the $sigma.$ The answer's going to be proportional to it... just do the computation with $sigma = 1$ and then scale by $sigma$ at the end.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              1
              down vote



              accepted










              The fact that the variance of the normals is not one is immaterial. You could just compute everything for $sigma=1$ and then rescale $Yto sigma Y$ at the end. Recall that if $X$ is $N(0,sigma^2)$ then $X/sigma$ is $N(0,1).$ So $Y/sigma = sqrtsum _i(X_i/sigma)^2$ which is $chi^2(M).$



              So you just need to compute square root of a $chi^2(M).$ This is a usual change of variables. So let $Z$ be a $chi^2(M)$ and let $Y = sigmasqrtZ$ where I included the scaling factor. Then you can write the cumulative distribution for $Y$ as $$ F_Y(y) = P(Yle y) = P(sigmasqrt Z < y) = P(Z<y^2/sigma^2) = F_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $F_Z$ is the CDF for a $chi^2(M).$ To get the PDF, take the derivative: $$ f_Y(y) = F'_Y(y) = frac2ysigma^2F'_Z(y^2/sigma^2) = frac2ysigma^2f_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $f_Z$ is the PDF for a $chi^2(M).$



              The expectation can be computed by either integrating the above PDF or computing the expectation of the square root of a chi squared. Remember, you don't need to worry about the $sigma.$ The answer's going to be proportional to it... just do the computation with $sigma = 1$ and then scale by $sigma$ at the end.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                1
                down vote



                accepted






                The fact that the variance of the normals is not one is immaterial. You could just compute everything for $sigma=1$ and then rescale $Yto sigma Y$ at the end. Recall that if $X$ is $N(0,sigma^2)$ then $X/sigma$ is $N(0,1).$ So $Y/sigma = sqrtsum _i(X_i/sigma)^2$ which is $chi^2(M).$



                So you just need to compute square root of a $chi^2(M).$ This is a usual change of variables. So let $Z$ be a $chi^2(M)$ and let $Y = sigmasqrtZ$ where I included the scaling factor. Then you can write the cumulative distribution for $Y$ as $$ F_Y(y) = P(Yle y) = P(sigmasqrt Z < y) = P(Z<y^2/sigma^2) = F_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $F_Z$ is the CDF for a $chi^2(M).$ To get the PDF, take the derivative: $$ f_Y(y) = F'_Y(y) = frac2ysigma^2F'_Z(y^2/sigma^2) = frac2ysigma^2f_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $f_Z$ is the PDF for a $chi^2(M).$



                The expectation can be computed by either integrating the above PDF or computing the expectation of the square root of a chi squared. Remember, you don't need to worry about the $sigma.$ The answer's going to be proportional to it... just do the computation with $sigma = 1$ and then scale by $sigma$ at the end.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                The fact that the variance of the normals is not one is immaterial. You could just compute everything for $sigma=1$ and then rescale $Yto sigma Y$ at the end. Recall that if $X$ is $N(0,sigma^2)$ then $X/sigma$ is $N(0,1).$ So $Y/sigma = sqrtsum _i(X_i/sigma)^2$ which is $chi^2(M).$



                So you just need to compute square root of a $chi^2(M).$ This is a usual change of variables. So let $Z$ be a $chi^2(M)$ and let $Y = sigmasqrtZ$ where I included the scaling factor. Then you can write the cumulative distribution for $Y$ as $$ F_Y(y) = P(Yle y) = P(sigmasqrt Z < y) = P(Z<y^2/sigma^2) = F_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $F_Z$ is the CDF for a $chi^2(M).$ To get the PDF, take the derivative: $$ f_Y(y) = F'_Y(y) = frac2ysigma^2F'_Z(y^2/sigma^2) = frac2ysigma^2f_Z(y^2/sigma^2)$$ where $f_Z$ is the PDF for a $chi^2(M).$



                The expectation can be computed by either integrating the above PDF or computing the expectation of the square root of a chi squared. Remember, you don't need to worry about the $sigma.$ The answer's going to be proportional to it... just do the computation with $sigma = 1$ and then scale by $sigma$ at the end.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 15 '17 at 8:41









                spaceisdarkgreen

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