Sequences in Hilbert space

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $A $ be an operator acting on an infinite dimensional complex Hibert space $ H $. Let $W(A)$ be
the set of all $langle Ax,x rangle $ with $xin H,~Vert x Vert=1$ and
$ w(A)=displaystyle sup_zin W(A)vert zvert. $
Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors in $H$ such that $$ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ax_n,x_n ranglevert=w(A).$$ Does exist a sequence $(y_n)$ of unit vectors in $H$ such that
$ langle x_n , y_n rangle=0 $ for all $n$ and
$$ displaystyle lim_nvert langle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert= w(A)?$$

Our approach is based on the following. By the Berberian-Orland trick,
there exist a complex Hilbert space $K supset H $ and an operator $A^o$ acting on $K$ with $A^o_vertH=A$ and $W(A^o)=adh(W(A))$, so we have $w(A)=w(A^o)$.
Put $$ displaystyle lim_nlangle Ax_n,x_n rangle=langle A^ox,x rangle_K quad and quad displaystyle lim_nlangle Ay_n,y_n rangle=langle A^oy,y rangle_K, $$ with $xin K$, $yin K$ and $Vert x Vert_K=Vert yVert_K=1$. Therefore, it suffices to show that $langle x,y rangle_K=0$.
If it is the case, since $langle A^ox,x rangle in W(A^o)cap partial W(A^o) $, then we get $vertlangle A^ox,x rangle_Kvert=vertlangle A^oy,y rangle_Kvert$. That is $ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert=w(A)$.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Where is the question? Is this a "proof verification" question?
    – b00n heT
    Aug 15 at 12:42











  • Might be stupid consideration, but in the simplest case i was able to immagine $A : mathbbC to mathbbC$ such that $A(z) = 2z$ this should be impossible because there are no couple of ortogonal vector with unitary norm
    – JayTuma
    Aug 15 at 12:44










  • We ask if the sequence $(y_n)$ exists!
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 12:51















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $A $ be an operator acting on an infinite dimensional complex Hibert space $ H $. Let $W(A)$ be
the set of all $langle Ax,x rangle $ with $xin H,~Vert x Vert=1$ and
$ w(A)=displaystyle sup_zin W(A)vert zvert. $
Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors in $H$ such that $$ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ax_n,x_n ranglevert=w(A).$$ Does exist a sequence $(y_n)$ of unit vectors in $H$ such that
$ langle x_n , y_n rangle=0 $ for all $n$ and
$$ displaystyle lim_nvert langle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert= w(A)?$$

Our approach is based on the following. By the Berberian-Orland trick,
there exist a complex Hilbert space $K supset H $ and an operator $A^o$ acting on $K$ with $A^o_vertH=A$ and $W(A^o)=adh(W(A))$, so we have $w(A)=w(A^o)$.
Put $$ displaystyle lim_nlangle Ax_n,x_n rangle=langle A^ox,x rangle_K quad and quad displaystyle lim_nlangle Ay_n,y_n rangle=langle A^oy,y rangle_K, $$ with $xin K$, $yin K$ and $Vert x Vert_K=Vert yVert_K=1$. Therefore, it suffices to show that $langle x,y rangle_K=0$.
If it is the case, since $langle A^ox,x rangle in W(A^o)cap partial W(A^o) $, then we get $vertlangle A^ox,x rangle_Kvert=vertlangle A^oy,y rangle_Kvert$. That is $ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert=w(A)$.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • Where is the question? Is this a "proof verification" question?
    – b00n heT
    Aug 15 at 12:42











  • Might be stupid consideration, but in the simplest case i was able to immagine $A : mathbbC to mathbbC$ such that $A(z) = 2z$ this should be impossible because there are no couple of ortogonal vector with unitary norm
    – JayTuma
    Aug 15 at 12:44










  • We ask if the sequence $(y_n)$ exists!
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 12:51













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Let $A $ be an operator acting on an infinite dimensional complex Hibert space $ H $. Let $W(A)$ be
the set of all $langle Ax,x rangle $ with $xin H,~Vert x Vert=1$ and
$ w(A)=displaystyle sup_zin W(A)vert zvert. $
Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors in $H$ such that $$ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ax_n,x_n ranglevert=w(A).$$ Does exist a sequence $(y_n)$ of unit vectors in $H$ such that
$ langle x_n , y_n rangle=0 $ for all $n$ and
$$ displaystyle lim_nvert langle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert= w(A)?$$

Our approach is based on the following. By the Berberian-Orland trick,
there exist a complex Hilbert space $K supset H $ and an operator $A^o$ acting on $K$ with $A^o_vertH=A$ and $W(A^o)=adh(W(A))$, so we have $w(A)=w(A^o)$.
Put $$ displaystyle lim_nlangle Ax_n,x_n rangle=langle A^ox,x rangle_K quad and quad displaystyle lim_nlangle Ay_n,y_n rangle=langle A^oy,y rangle_K, $$ with $xin K$, $yin K$ and $Vert x Vert_K=Vert yVert_K=1$. Therefore, it suffices to show that $langle x,y rangle_K=0$.
If it is the case, since $langle A^ox,x rangle in W(A^o)cap partial W(A^o) $, then we get $vertlangle A^ox,x rangle_Kvert=vertlangle A^oy,y rangle_Kvert$. That is $ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert=w(A)$.







share|cite|improve this question














Let $A $ be an operator acting on an infinite dimensional complex Hibert space $ H $. Let $W(A)$ be
the set of all $langle Ax,x rangle $ with $xin H,~Vert x Vert=1$ and
$ w(A)=displaystyle sup_zin W(A)vert zvert. $
Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors in $H$ such that $$ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ax_n,x_n ranglevert=w(A).$$ Does exist a sequence $(y_n)$ of unit vectors in $H$ such that
$ langle x_n , y_n rangle=0 $ for all $n$ and
$$ displaystyle lim_nvert langle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert= w(A)?$$

Our approach is based on the following. By the Berberian-Orland trick,
there exist a complex Hilbert space $K supset H $ and an operator $A^o$ acting on $K$ with $A^o_vertH=A$ and $W(A^o)=adh(W(A))$, so we have $w(A)=w(A^o)$.
Put $$ displaystyle lim_nlangle Ax_n,x_n rangle=langle A^ox,x rangle_K quad and quad displaystyle lim_nlangle Ay_n,y_n rangle=langle A^oy,y rangle_K, $$ with $xin K$, $yin K$ and $Vert x Vert_K=Vert yVert_K=1$. Therefore, it suffices to show that $langle x,y rangle_K=0$.
If it is the case, since $langle A^ox,x rangle in W(A^o)cap partial W(A^o) $, then we get $vertlangle A^ox,x rangle_Kvert=vertlangle A^oy,y rangle_Kvert$. That is $ displaystyle lim_nvertlangle Ay_n,y_n ranglevert=w(A)$.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 15 at 12:52

























asked Aug 15 at 12:35









A. Bag

694




694











  • Where is the question? Is this a "proof verification" question?
    – b00n heT
    Aug 15 at 12:42











  • Might be stupid consideration, but in the simplest case i was able to immagine $A : mathbbC to mathbbC$ such that $A(z) = 2z$ this should be impossible because there are no couple of ortogonal vector with unitary norm
    – JayTuma
    Aug 15 at 12:44










  • We ask if the sequence $(y_n)$ exists!
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 12:51

















  • Where is the question? Is this a "proof verification" question?
    – b00n heT
    Aug 15 at 12:42











  • Might be stupid consideration, but in the simplest case i was able to immagine $A : mathbbC to mathbbC$ such that $A(z) = 2z$ this should be impossible because there are no couple of ortogonal vector with unitary norm
    – JayTuma
    Aug 15 at 12:44










  • We ask if the sequence $(y_n)$ exists!
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 12:51
















Where is the question? Is this a "proof verification" question?
– b00n heT
Aug 15 at 12:42





Where is the question? Is this a "proof verification" question?
– b00n heT
Aug 15 at 12:42













Might be stupid consideration, but in the simplest case i was able to immagine $A : mathbbC to mathbbC$ such that $A(z) = 2z$ this should be impossible because there are no couple of ortogonal vector with unitary norm
– JayTuma
Aug 15 at 12:44




Might be stupid consideration, but in the simplest case i was able to immagine $A : mathbbC to mathbbC$ such that $A(z) = 2z$ this should be impossible because there are no couple of ortogonal vector with unitary norm
– JayTuma
Aug 15 at 12:44












We ask if the sequence $(y_n)$ exists!
– A. Bag
Aug 15 at 12:51





We ask if the sequence $(y_n)$ exists!
– A. Bag
Aug 15 at 12:51











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote













This is not possible. Take $H=l^2$, define
$$
Ax = x_1e_1,
$$
then $langle Ax,xrangle = |x_1|^2$. Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors such that $langle Ax_n,x_nrangle to 1$, which implies $|x_n,1|to 1$.
Since $|x_n|=1$, it follows $|x_n -x_n,1e_1|to0$. Let $(y_n)$ be another sequence with these properties. Then clearly $|langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$:
$$
langle x_n,y_nrangle = x_n,1y_n,1 +langle x_n -x_n,1e_1,x_n -x_n,1e_1rangle,
$$
which converges to a limit with absolute value $1$, as the second addend is the inner product of two sequences converging to zero.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 14:43











Your Answer




StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
);
);
, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: false,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);








 

draft saved


draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2883547%2fsequences-in-hilbert-space%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest






























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote













This is not possible. Take $H=l^2$, define
$$
Ax = x_1e_1,
$$
then $langle Ax,xrangle = |x_1|^2$. Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors such that $langle Ax_n,x_nrangle to 1$, which implies $|x_n,1|to 1$.
Since $|x_n|=1$, it follows $|x_n -x_n,1e_1|to0$. Let $(y_n)$ be another sequence with these properties. Then clearly $|langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$:
$$
langle x_n,y_nrangle = x_n,1y_n,1 +langle x_n -x_n,1e_1,x_n -x_n,1e_1rangle,
$$
which converges to a limit with absolute value $1$, as the second addend is the inner product of two sequences converging to zero.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 14:43















up vote
0
down vote













This is not possible. Take $H=l^2$, define
$$
Ax = x_1e_1,
$$
then $langle Ax,xrangle = |x_1|^2$. Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors such that $langle Ax_n,x_nrangle to 1$, which implies $|x_n,1|to 1$.
Since $|x_n|=1$, it follows $|x_n -x_n,1e_1|to0$. Let $(y_n)$ be another sequence with these properties. Then clearly $|langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$:
$$
langle x_n,y_nrangle = x_n,1y_n,1 +langle x_n -x_n,1e_1,x_n -x_n,1e_1rangle,
$$
which converges to a limit with absolute value $1$, as the second addend is the inner product of two sequences converging to zero.






share|cite|improve this answer






















  • Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 14:43













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









This is not possible. Take $H=l^2$, define
$$
Ax = x_1e_1,
$$
then $langle Ax,xrangle = |x_1|^2$. Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors such that $langle Ax_n,x_nrangle to 1$, which implies $|x_n,1|to 1$.
Since $|x_n|=1$, it follows $|x_n -x_n,1e_1|to0$. Let $(y_n)$ be another sequence with these properties. Then clearly $|langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$:
$$
langle x_n,y_nrangle = x_n,1y_n,1 +langle x_n -x_n,1e_1,x_n -x_n,1e_1rangle,
$$
which converges to a limit with absolute value $1$, as the second addend is the inner product of two sequences converging to zero.






share|cite|improve this answer














This is not possible. Take $H=l^2$, define
$$
Ax = x_1e_1,
$$
then $langle Ax,xrangle = |x_1|^2$. Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence of unit vectors such that $langle Ax_n,x_nrangle to 1$, which implies $|x_n,1|to 1$.
Since $|x_n|=1$, it follows $|x_n -x_n,1e_1|to0$. Let $(y_n)$ be another sequence with these properties. Then clearly $|langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$:
$$
langle x_n,y_nrangle = x_n,1y_n,1 +langle x_n -x_n,1e_1,x_n -x_n,1e_1rangle,
$$
which converges to a limit with absolute value $1$, as the second addend is the inner product of two sequences converging to zero.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 15 at 16:28

























answered Aug 15 at 14:09









daw

22k1542




22k1542











  • Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 14:43

















  • Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
    – A. Bag
    Aug 15 at 14:43
















Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
– A. Bag
Aug 15 at 14:43





Why $ |langle x_n,y_nrangle|to1$? to have $langle x,y rangle_K=0 $ in my suggestion is a sufficient condition not necessary.
– A. Bag
Aug 15 at 14:43













 

draft saved


draft discarded


























 


draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2883547%2fsequences-in-hilbert-space%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest













































































這個網誌中的熱門文章

How to combine Bézier curves to a surface?

Propositional logic and tautologies

Distribution of Stopped Wiener Process with Stochastic Volatility