Why we can have this $int_S(0,1)exp(ipi j.x)ds=int_S(0,1)exp(ipi$?
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I can't understand why we can have this
beginalign*int_S(0,1)exp(ipi j.x)ds&=int_S(0,1)j\
&=2int_-1^1exp(ipiendalign*
with $x=(x_1,x_2),j=(j_1,j_2), |j|=sqrtj_1^2+j^2_2$, $S(0,1)$ is unit circle.
Help me, thank you.
lebesgue-integral
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I can't understand why we can have this
beginalign*int_S(0,1)exp(ipi j.x)ds&=int_S(0,1)j\
&=2int_-1^1exp(ipiendalign*
with $x=(x_1,x_2),j=(j_1,j_2), |j|=sqrtj_1^2+j^2_2$, $S(0,1)$ is unit circle.
Help me, thank you.
lebesgue-integral
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I can't understand why we can have this
beginalign*int_S(0,1)exp(ipi j.x)ds&=int_S(0,1)j\
&=2int_-1^1exp(ipiendalign*
with $x=(x_1,x_2),j=(j_1,j_2), |j|=sqrtj_1^2+j^2_2$, $S(0,1)$ is unit circle.
Help me, thank you.
lebesgue-integral
I can't understand why we can have this
beginalign*int_S(0,1)exp(ipi j.x)ds&=int_S(0,1)j\
&=2int_-1^1exp(ipiendalign*
with $x=(x_1,x_2),j=(j_1,j_2), |j|=sqrtj_1^2+j^2_2$, $S(0,1)$ is unit circle.
Help me, thank you.
lebesgue-integral
edited Aug 25 at 8:36
asked Aug 25 at 8:17
Chloe.Sannon
1038
1038
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