An application of Riesz representation theorem $lim_nrightarrow infty left=left$.

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Suppose that $mathcalH$ be a real, separable Hilbert space and $e_k $ be a countable orthonormal basis. And let $xin mathcalH$ and $x_nsubset mathcalH$ is a bounded sequence. Than prove that $$lim_nrightarrow inftyleft< x_n,e_kright>=left<x,e_kright>hspace3mmforall k implies lim_nrightarrow infty psi(x_n)=psi(x ) forall psiin mathcalH^* $$




I am trying to prove the statement above. I was trying to work on only finite sum of orthonormal basis but I don;t know how to connect to infinite sum after that. I hope to be able to get some hint or answer. Thank you in advance :)







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    You're missing the limit on the left-hand side.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 24 at 23:59










  • @TheoreticalEconomist Thank you! I have edited :)
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 25 at 0:36














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Suppose that $mathcalH$ be a real, separable Hilbert space and $e_k $ be a countable orthonormal basis. And let $xin mathcalH$ and $x_nsubset mathcalH$ is a bounded sequence. Than prove that $$lim_nrightarrow inftyleft< x_n,e_kright>=left<x,e_kright>hspace3mmforall k implies lim_nrightarrow infty psi(x_n)=psi(x ) forall psiin mathcalH^* $$




I am trying to prove the statement above. I was trying to work on only finite sum of orthonormal basis but I don;t know how to connect to infinite sum after that. I hope to be able to get some hint or answer. Thank you in advance :)







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    You're missing the limit on the left-hand side.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 24 at 23:59










  • @TheoreticalEconomist Thank you! I have edited :)
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 25 at 0:36












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Suppose that $mathcalH$ be a real, separable Hilbert space and $e_k $ be a countable orthonormal basis. And let $xin mathcalH$ and $x_nsubset mathcalH$ is a bounded sequence. Than prove that $$lim_nrightarrow inftyleft< x_n,e_kright>=left<x,e_kright>hspace3mmforall k implies lim_nrightarrow infty psi(x_n)=psi(x ) forall psiin mathcalH^* $$




I am trying to prove the statement above. I was trying to work on only finite sum of orthonormal basis but I don;t know how to connect to infinite sum after that. I hope to be able to get some hint or answer. Thank you in advance :)







share|cite|improve this question















Suppose that $mathcalH$ be a real, separable Hilbert space and $e_k $ be a countable orthonormal basis. And let $xin mathcalH$ and $x_nsubset mathcalH$ is a bounded sequence. Than prove that $$lim_nrightarrow inftyleft< x_n,e_kright>=left<x,e_kright>hspace3mmforall k implies lim_nrightarrow infty psi(x_n)=psi(x ) forall psiin mathcalH^* $$




I am trying to prove the statement above. I was trying to work on only finite sum of orthonormal basis but I don;t know how to connect to infinite sum after that. I hope to be able to get some hint or answer. Thank you in advance :)









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




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edited Aug 25 at 0:36

























asked Aug 24 at 23:55









Lev Ban

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  • 2




    You're missing the limit on the left-hand side.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 24 at 23:59










  • @TheoreticalEconomist Thank you! I have edited :)
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 25 at 0:36












  • 2




    You're missing the limit on the left-hand side.
    – Theoretical Economist
    Aug 24 at 23:59










  • @TheoreticalEconomist Thank you! I have edited :)
    – Lev Ban
    Aug 25 at 0:36







2




2




You're missing the limit on the left-hand side.
– Theoretical Economist
Aug 24 at 23:59




You're missing the limit on the left-hand side.
– Theoretical Economist
Aug 24 at 23:59












@TheoreticalEconomist Thank you! I have edited :)
– Lev Ban
Aug 25 at 0:36




@TheoreticalEconomist Thank you! I have edited :)
– Lev Ban
Aug 25 at 0:36










2 Answers
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Without loss of generality, suppose $x=0$. We first show that $lim_n rightarrow inftylangle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y in H$. Let $y=sum_i=1^infty t_ie_i$. Given $epsilon>0$, choose $m$ large enough so that $|y-y_m|<epsilon$, where $y_m=sum_i=1^m t_ie_i$. Then
$$|langle x_n,y_m rangle|leq sum_i=1^m |t_i| |langle x_n,e_irangle |,$$
and so for $n$ large enough $|langle x_n,y_m rangle|<epsilon$. Now for $n$ large enough
$$|langle x_n,y rangle-langle x_n, y_m rangle| =|langle x_n, y-y_m rangle|<|x_n| |y-y_m| leq C epsilon,$$
where $C$ is the bound on the sequence $x_i$. Therefore, for $n$ large enough
$$|langle x_n, y rangle|< |langle x_n,y_m rangle|+Cepsilon<(C+1)epsilon.$$
Since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, we have $lim langle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y$. The rest follows from Riesz Representation Theorem.






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    For any $y in H$ we have $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| leq (sum_N^infty (langle x_n,e_k)^2)^1/2 (sum_N^infty (langle y,e_k)^2)^1/2$. The first factor is bounded by $|x_n|$ which is bounded in $n$. Hence, given $epsilon>0$ we can choose $N$ such that $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $ for all $n$. We can choose $N$ such that we also have $|sum_N^infty langle y,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $. Can you now complete the proof by splitting sum over all $k$ into sum from $1$ to $N-1$ and the one from $N$ to $infty$?






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      Without loss of generality, suppose $x=0$. We first show that $lim_n rightarrow inftylangle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y in H$. Let $y=sum_i=1^infty t_ie_i$. Given $epsilon>0$, choose $m$ large enough so that $|y-y_m|<epsilon$, where $y_m=sum_i=1^m t_ie_i$. Then
      $$|langle x_n,y_m rangle|leq sum_i=1^m |t_i| |langle x_n,e_irangle |,$$
      and so for $n$ large enough $|langle x_n,y_m rangle|<epsilon$. Now for $n$ large enough
      $$|langle x_n,y rangle-langle x_n, y_m rangle| =|langle x_n, y-y_m rangle|<|x_n| |y-y_m| leq C epsilon,$$
      where $C$ is the bound on the sequence $x_i$. Therefore, for $n$ large enough
      $$|langle x_n, y rangle|< |langle x_n,y_m rangle|+Cepsilon<(C+1)epsilon.$$
      Since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, we have $lim langle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y$. The rest follows from Riesz Representation Theorem.






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        Without loss of generality, suppose $x=0$. We first show that $lim_n rightarrow inftylangle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y in H$. Let $y=sum_i=1^infty t_ie_i$. Given $epsilon>0$, choose $m$ large enough so that $|y-y_m|<epsilon$, where $y_m=sum_i=1^m t_ie_i$. Then
        $$|langle x_n,y_m rangle|leq sum_i=1^m |t_i| |langle x_n,e_irangle |,$$
        and so for $n$ large enough $|langle x_n,y_m rangle|<epsilon$. Now for $n$ large enough
        $$|langle x_n,y rangle-langle x_n, y_m rangle| =|langle x_n, y-y_m rangle|<|x_n| |y-y_m| leq C epsilon,$$
        where $C$ is the bound on the sequence $x_i$. Therefore, for $n$ large enough
        $$|langle x_n, y rangle|< |langle x_n,y_m rangle|+Cepsilon<(C+1)epsilon.$$
        Since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, we have $lim langle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y$. The rest follows from Riesz Representation Theorem.






        share|cite|improve this answer






















          up vote
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          accepted







          up vote
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          accepted






          Without loss of generality, suppose $x=0$. We first show that $lim_n rightarrow inftylangle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y in H$. Let $y=sum_i=1^infty t_ie_i$. Given $epsilon>0$, choose $m$ large enough so that $|y-y_m|<epsilon$, where $y_m=sum_i=1^m t_ie_i$. Then
          $$|langle x_n,y_m rangle|leq sum_i=1^m |t_i| |langle x_n,e_irangle |,$$
          and so for $n$ large enough $|langle x_n,y_m rangle|<epsilon$. Now for $n$ large enough
          $$|langle x_n,y rangle-langle x_n, y_m rangle| =|langle x_n, y-y_m rangle|<|x_n| |y-y_m| leq C epsilon,$$
          where $C$ is the bound on the sequence $x_i$. Therefore, for $n$ large enough
          $$|langle x_n, y rangle|< |langle x_n,y_m rangle|+Cepsilon<(C+1)epsilon.$$
          Since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, we have $lim langle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y$. The rest follows from Riesz Representation Theorem.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Without loss of generality, suppose $x=0$. We first show that $lim_n rightarrow inftylangle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y in H$. Let $y=sum_i=1^infty t_ie_i$. Given $epsilon>0$, choose $m$ large enough so that $|y-y_m|<epsilon$, where $y_m=sum_i=1^m t_ie_i$. Then
          $$|langle x_n,y_m rangle|leq sum_i=1^m |t_i| |langle x_n,e_irangle |,$$
          and so for $n$ large enough $|langle x_n,y_m rangle|<epsilon$. Now for $n$ large enough
          $$|langle x_n,y rangle-langle x_n, y_m rangle| =|langle x_n, y-y_m rangle|<|x_n| |y-y_m| leq C epsilon,$$
          where $C$ is the bound on the sequence $x_i$. Therefore, for $n$ large enough
          $$|langle x_n, y rangle|< |langle x_n,y_m rangle|+Cepsilon<(C+1)epsilon.$$
          Since $epsilon$ was arbitrary, we have $lim langle x_n,y rangle=0$ for all $y$. The rest follows from Riesz Representation Theorem.







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          answered Aug 25 at 1:10









          Marco

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              For any $y in H$ we have $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| leq (sum_N^infty (langle x_n,e_k)^2)^1/2 (sum_N^infty (langle y,e_k)^2)^1/2$. The first factor is bounded by $|x_n|$ which is bounded in $n$. Hence, given $epsilon>0$ we can choose $N$ such that $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $ for all $n$. We can choose $N$ such that we also have $|sum_N^infty langle y,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $. Can you now complete the proof by splitting sum over all $k$ into sum from $1$ to $N-1$ and the one from $N$ to $infty$?






              share|cite|improve this answer


























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                For any $y in H$ we have $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| leq (sum_N^infty (langle x_n,e_k)^2)^1/2 (sum_N^infty (langle y,e_k)^2)^1/2$. The first factor is bounded by $|x_n|$ which is bounded in $n$. Hence, given $epsilon>0$ we can choose $N$ such that $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $ for all $n$. We can choose $N$ such that we also have $|sum_N^infty langle y,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $. Can you now complete the proof by splitting sum over all $k$ into sum from $1$ to $N-1$ and the one from $N$ to $infty$?






                share|cite|improve this answer
























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                  For any $y in H$ we have $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| leq (sum_N^infty (langle x_n,e_k)^2)^1/2 (sum_N^infty (langle y,e_k)^2)^1/2$. The first factor is bounded by $|x_n|$ which is bounded in $n$. Hence, given $epsilon>0$ we can choose $N$ such that $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $ for all $n$. We can choose $N$ such that we also have $|sum_N^infty langle y,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $. Can you now complete the proof by splitting sum over all $k$ into sum from $1$ to $N-1$ and the one from $N$ to $infty$?






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  For any $y in H$ we have $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| leq (sum_N^infty (langle x_n,e_k)^2)^1/2 (sum_N^infty (langle y,e_k)^2)^1/2$. The first factor is bounded by $|x_n|$ which is bounded in $n$. Hence, given $epsilon>0$ we can choose $N$ such that $|sum_N^infty langle x_n,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $ for all $n$. We can choose $N$ such that we also have $|sum_N^infty langle y,e_k rangle langle y,e_k rangle| <epsilon $. Can you now complete the proof by splitting sum over all $k$ into sum from $1$ to $N-1$ and the one from $N$ to $infty$?







                  share|cite|improve this answer














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                  edited Aug 25 at 0:17

























                  answered Aug 25 at 0:09









                  Kavi Rama Murthy

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