Prove that every equation of degree $n$ in $x$ has $n$ roots and no more.

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Prove that every equation of degree $n$ in $x$ has $n$ roots and no more.



My Attempt:



Let us suppose $f(x)=0$ where
$$f(x)=a_0 x^n + a_1 x^n-1+.....+a_n-1 x+a_n$$



According to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, the equation $f(x)=0$ has a root, real or complex. Let this root be $alpha_1$; then by the Factor Theorem, $x-alpha_1$ is a factor of $f(x)$.



So, how do I proceed from here?







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  • Write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)gleft(xright)$, and proceed by induction.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 14:59










  • I see no reason to downvote.
    – ajotatxe
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:00










  • @Guy, Please elaborate more.
    – blue_eyed_...
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:01










  • @ajotatxe: Not that I care personally but I could easily imagine someone getting angry at someone using a famous persons name and picture for their account.
    – mathreadler
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03










  • Use induction on $deg f$. If $deg f=0$, it is trivial. Otherwise, as you wrote, there is a root $alpha_1$, hence we may write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)g(x)$. Now use the induction hypothesis on $g$ to conclude.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












Prove that every equation of degree $n$ in $x$ has $n$ roots and no more.



My Attempt:



Let us suppose $f(x)=0$ where
$$f(x)=a_0 x^n + a_1 x^n-1+.....+a_n-1 x+a_n$$



According to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, the equation $f(x)=0$ has a root, real or complex. Let this root be $alpha_1$; then by the Factor Theorem, $x-alpha_1$ is a factor of $f(x)$.



So, how do I proceed from here?







share|cite|improve this question




















  • Write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)gleft(xright)$, and proceed by induction.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 14:59










  • I see no reason to downvote.
    – ajotatxe
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:00










  • @Guy, Please elaborate more.
    – blue_eyed_...
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:01










  • @ajotatxe: Not that I care personally but I could easily imagine someone getting angry at someone using a famous persons name and picture for their account.
    – mathreadler
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03










  • Use induction on $deg f$. If $deg f=0$, it is trivial. Otherwise, as you wrote, there is a root $alpha_1$, hence we may write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)g(x)$. Now use the induction hypothesis on $g$ to conclude.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











Prove that every equation of degree $n$ in $x$ has $n$ roots and no more.



My Attempt:



Let us suppose $f(x)=0$ where
$$f(x)=a_0 x^n + a_1 x^n-1+.....+a_n-1 x+a_n$$



According to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, the equation $f(x)=0$ has a root, real or complex. Let this root be $alpha_1$; then by the Factor Theorem, $x-alpha_1$ is a factor of $f(x)$.



So, how do I proceed from here?







share|cite|improve this question












Prove that every equation of degree $n$ in $x$ has $n$ roots and no more.



My Attempt:



Let us suppose $f(x)=0$ where
$$f(x)=a_0 x^n + a_1 x^n-1+.....+a_n-1 x+a_n$$



According to the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, the equation $f(x)=0$ has a root, real or complex. Let this root be $alpha_1$; then by the Factor Theorem, $x-alpha_1$ is a factor of $f(x)$.



So, how do I proceed from here?









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Apr 29 '17 at 14:58









blue_eyed_...

3,19321137




3,19321137











  • Write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)gleft(xright)$, and proceed by induction.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 14:59










  • I see no reason to downvote.
    – ajotatxe
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:00










  • @Guy, Please elaborate more.
    – blue_eyed_...
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:01










  • @ajotatxe: Not that I care personally but I could easily imagine someone getting angry at someone using a famous persons name and picture for their account.
    – mathreadler
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03










  • Use induction on $deg f$. If $deg f=0$, it is trivial. Otherwise, as you wrote, there is a root $alpha_1$, hence we may write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)g(x)$. Now use the induction hypothesis on $g$ to conclude.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03
















  • Write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)gleft(xright)$, and proceed by induction.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 14:59










  • I see no reason to downvote.
    – ajotatxe
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:00










  • @Guy, Please elaborate more.
    – blue_eyed_...
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:01










  • @ajotatxe: Not that I care personally but I could easily imagine someone getting angry at someone using a famous persons name and picture for their account.
    – mathreadler
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03










  • Use induction on $deg f$. If $deg f=0$, it is trivial. Otherwise, as you wrote, there is a root $alpha_1$, hence we may write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)g(x)$. Now use the induction hypothesis on $g$ to conclude.
    – Guy
    Apr 29 '17 at 15:03















Write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)gleft(xright)$, and proceed by induction.
– Guy
Apr 29 '17 at 14:59




Write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)gleft(xright)$, and proceed by induction.
– Guy
Apr 29 '17 at 14:59












I see no reason to downvote.
– ajotatxe
Apr 29 '17 at 15:00




I see no reason to downvote.
– ajotatxe
Apr 29 '17 at 15:00












@Guy, Please elaborate more.
– blue_eyed_...
Apr 29 '17 at 15:01




@Guy, Please elaborate more.
– blue_eyed_...
Apr 29 '17 at 15:01












@ajotatxe: Not that I care personally but I could easily imagine someone getting angry at someone using a famous persons name and picture for their account.
– mathreadler
Apr 29 '17 at 15:03




@ajotatxe: Not that I care personally but I could easily imagine someone getting angry at someone using a famous persons name and picture for their account.
– mathreadler
Apr 29 '17 at 15:03












Use induction on $deg f$. If $deg f=0$, it is trivial. Otherwise, as you wrote, there is a root $alpha_1$, hence we may write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)g(x)$. Now use the induction hypothesis on $g$ to conclude.
– Guy
Apr 29 '17 at 15:03




Use induction on $deg f$. If $deg f=0$, it is trivial. Otherwise, as you wrote, there is a root $alpha_1$, hence we may write $f(x)=left(x-alpha_1right)g(x)$. Now use the induction hypothesis on $g$ to conclude.
– Guy
Apr 29 '17 at 15:03










2 Answers
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We have $f(alpha_1)=0$. Then we can write $f(x) = (x-alpha_1)g(x)quad$ where $g(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-1$.



So, $g(x)$ must have a root $alpha_2$. Then we can write $f(x) =(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2)h(x)$ where $h(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-2$ etc...



In general we have a proposition that a polynomial $f(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n$ roots for $ninmathbbZ^+$.



So for $n=1:$



$f(x) = a_1x +a_0=0implies x=-fraca_0a_1$ is the only root. So true for $n=1$.



Assume true for $n$. Now we must prove true $n+1:$



Let $q(x)$ have degree $n+1$. So by the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, there exists a root of $q(x)$ which we will call $alpha_1$. Then we can write $q(x) = (x-alpha_1)f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some polynomial with degree $n$. From our inductive assumption, we have that $f(x)$ has $n$ roots. Therefore $q(x)$ has $n+1$ roots as required. Hence our statement holds $forall ninmathbbZ^+$






share|cite|improve this answer



























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    By induction over $n$:



    If $n=0$ then $f in F^times$ and $f(alpha)=fneq 0$ for every $alpha in F$.
    That is $f$ has no roots in $F$.



    Suppose $n>0:$



    Suppose the claim is true for every polynomial of degree $n-1$.



    If $f$ has not roots in $F$, we're done.



    Else, it has root $alpha in F$, so $f=(X-alpha)g, $ for some $gin F[X]$ of degree $n-1$.



    By induction hypothesis, $g$ has at most $n-1$ different roots in $F$.



    It is easy to see that the roots of $f$ are exactly the roots of $g$ and $alpha$.



    Hence, $f$ has at most $n$ different roots in $F$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
      – blue_eyed_...
      Apr 29 '17 at 15:50










    • @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
      – Itay4
      Apr 29 '17 at 15:52










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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    0
    down vote













    We have $f(alpha_1)=0$. Then we can write $f(x) = (x-alpha_1)g(x)quad$ where $g(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-1$.



    So, $g(x)$ must have a root $alpha_2$. Then we can write $f(x) =(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2)h(x)$ where $h(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-2$ etc...



    In general we have a proposition that a polynomial $f(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n$ roots for $ninmathbbZ^+$.



    So for $n=1:$



    $f(x) = a_1x +a_0=0implies x=-fraca_0a_1$ is the only root. So true for $n=1$.



    Assume true for $n$. Now we must prove true $n+1:$



    Let $q(x)$ have degree $n+1$. So by the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, there exists a root of $q(x)$ which we will call $alpha_1$. Then we can write $q(x) = (x-alpha_1)f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some polynomial with degree $n$. From our inductive assumption, we have that $f(x)$ has $n$ roots. Therefore $q(x)$ has $n+1$ roots as required. Hence our statement holds $forall ninmathbbZ^+$






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      We have $f(alpha_1)=0$. Then we can write $f(x) = (x-alpha_1)g(x)quad$ where $g(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-1$.



      So, $g(x)$ must have a root $alpha_2$. Then we can write $f(x) =(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2)h(x)$ where $h(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-2$ etc...



      In general we have a proposition that a polynomial $f(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n$ roots for $ninmathbbZ^+$.



      So for $n=1:$



      $f(x) = a_1x +a_0=0implies x=-fraca_0a_1$ is the only root. So true for $n=1$.



      Assume true for $n$. Now we must prove true $n+1:$



      Let $q(x)$ have degree $n+1$. So by the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, there exists a root of $q(x)$ which we will call $alpha_1$. Then we can write $q(x) = (x-alpha_1)f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some polynomial with degree $n$. From our inductive assumption, we have that $f(x)$ has $n$ roots. Therefore $q(x)$ has $n+1$ roots as required. Hence our statement holds $forall ninmathbbZ^+$






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        We have $f(alpha_1)=0$. Then we can write $f(x) = (x-alpha_1)g(x)quad$ where $g(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-1$.



        So, $g(x)$ must have a root $alpha_2$. Then we can write $f(x) =(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2)h(x)$ where $h(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-2$ etc...



        In general we have a proposition that a polynomial $f(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n$ roots for $ninmathbbZ^+$.



        So for $n=1:$



        $f(x) = a_1x +a_0=0implies x=-fraca_0a_1$ is the only root. So true for $n=1$.



        Assume true for $n$. Now we must prove true $n+1:$



        Let $q(x)$ have degree $n+1$. So by the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, there exists a root of $q(x)$ which we will call $alpha_1$. Then we can write $q(x) = (x-alpha_1)f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some polynomial with degree $n$. From our inductive assumption, we have that $f(x)$ has $n$ roots. Therefore $q(x)$ has $n+1$ roots as required. Hence our statement holds $forall ninmathbbZ^+$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        We have $f(alpha_1)=0$. Then we can write $f(x) = (x-alpha_1)g(x)quad$ where $g(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-1$.



        So, $g(x)$ must have a root $alpha_2$. Then we can write $f(x) =(x-alpha_1)(x-alpha_2)h(x)$ where $h(x)$ is a polynomial with degree $n-2$ etc...



        In general we have a proposition that a polynomial $f(x)$ with degree $n$ has $n$ roots for $ninmathbbZ^+$.



        So for $n=1:$



        $f(x) = a_1x +a_0=0implies x=-fraca_0a_1$ is the only root. So true for $n=1$.



        Assume true for $n$. Now we must prove true $n+1:$



        Let $q(x)$ have degree $n+1$. So by the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra, there exists a root of $q(x)$ which we will call $alpha_1$. Then we can write $q(x) = (x-alpha_1)f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some polynomial with degree $n$. From our inductive assumption, we have that $f(x)$ has $n$ roots. Therefore $q(x)$ has $n+1$ roots as required. Hence our statement holds $forall ninmathbbZ^+$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Apr 29 '17 at 15:08









        mrnovice

        5,3261325




        5,3261325




















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            By induction over $n$:



            If $n=0$ then $f in F^times$ and $f(alpha)=fneq 0$ for every $alpha in F$.
            That is $f$ has no roots in $F$.



            Suppose $n>0:$



            Suppose the claim is true for every polynomial of degree $n-1$.



            If $f$ has not roots in $F$, we're done.



            Else, it has root $alpha in F$, so $f=(X-alpha)g, $ for some $gin F[X]$ of degree $n-1$.



            By induction hypothesis, $g$ has at most $n-1$ different roots in $F$.



            It is easy to see that the roots of $f$ are exactly the roots of $g$ and $alpha$.



            Hence, $f$ has at most $n$ different roots in $F$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
              – blue_eyed_...
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:50










            • @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
              – Itay4
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:52














            up vote
            0
            down vote













            By induction over $n$:



            If $n=0$ then $f in F^times$ and $f(alpha)=fneq 0$ for every $alpha in F$.
            That is $f$ has no roots in $F$.



            Suppose $n>0:$



            Suppose the claim is true for every polynomial of degree $n-1$.



            If $f$ has not roots in $F$, we're done.



            Else, it has root $alpha in F$, so $f=(X-alpha)g, $ for some $gin F[X]$ of degree $n-1$.



            By induction hypothesis, $g$ has at most $n-1$ different roots in $F$.



            It is easy to see that the roots of $f$ are exactly the roots of $g$ and $alpha$.



            Hence, $f$ has at most $n$ different roots in $F$






            share|cite|improve this answer




















            • what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
              – blue_eyed_...
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:50










            • @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
              – Itay4
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:52












            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            By induction over $n$:



            If $n=0$ then $f in F^times$ and $f(alpha)=fneq 0$ for every $alpha in F$.
            That is $f$ has no roots in $F$.



            Suppose $n>0:$



            Suppose the claim is true for every polynomial of degree $n-1$.



            If $f$ has not roots in $F$, we're done.



            Else, it has root $alpha in F$, so $f=(X-alpha)g, $ for some $gin F[X]$ of degree $n-1$.



            By induction hypothesis, $g$ has at most $n-1$ different roots in $F$.



            It is easy to see that the roots of $f$ are exactly the roots of $g$ and $alpha$.



            Hence, $f$ has at most $n$ different roots in $F$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            By induction over $n$:



            If $n=0$ then $f in F^times$ and $f(alpha)=fneq 0$ for every $alpha in F$.
            That is $f$ has no roots in $F$.



            Suppose $n>0:$



            Suppose the claim is true for every polynomial of degree $n-1$.



            If $f$ has not roots in $F$, we're done.



            Else, it has root $alpha in F$, so $f=(X-alpha)g, $ for some $gin F[X]$ of degree $n-1$.



            By induction hypothesis, $g$ has at most $n-1$ different roots in $F$.



            It is easy to see that the roots of $f$ are exactly the roots of $g$ and $alpha$.



            Hence, $f$ has at most $n$ different roots in $F$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Apr 29 '17 at 15:08









            Itay4

            1,252522




            1,252522











            • what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
              – blue_eyed_...
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:50










            • @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
              – Itay4
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:52
















            • what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
              – blue_eyed_...
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:50










            • @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
              – Itay4
              Apr 29 '17 at 15:52















            what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
            – blue_eyed_...
            Apr 29 '17 at 15:50




            what is $F$ , what have you assumed it?
            – blue_eyed_...
            Apr 29 '17 at 15:50












            @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
            – Itay4
            Apr 29 '17 at 15:52




            @AlbertEinstein $F$ is a field.
            – Itay4
            Apr 29 '17 at 15:52

















             

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