radius of convergence of the series $sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n!$

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What is the radius of convergence of the series



$$
sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n!
$$
?



Answer:



If the series was



$$
sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n
$$



then I could apply Hardamard Formula. But since there are $x^n!$ instead of $x^n$ I got stuck right here.



Help me doing this using Cauchy Hadamard formula
.







share|cite|improve this question


























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    What is the radius of convergence of the series



    $$
    sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n!
    $$
    ?



    Answer:



    If the series was



    $$
    sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n
    $$



    then I could apply Hardamard Formula. But since there are $x^n!$ instead of $x^n$ I got stuck right here.



    Help me doing this using Cauchy Hadamard formula
    .







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      What is the radius of convergence of the series



      $$
      sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n!
      $$
      ?



      Answer:



      If the series was



      $$
      sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n
      $$



      then I could apply Hardamard Formula. But since there are $x^n!$ instead of $x^n$ I got stuck right here.



      Help me doing this using Cauchy Hadamard formula
      .







      share|cite|improve this question














      What is the radius of convergence of the series



      $$
      sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n!
      $$
      ?



      Answer:



      If the series was



      $$
      sum_n=1^infty n^22^large -n! x^n
      $$



      then I could apply Hardamard Formula. But since there are $x^n!$ instead of $x^n$ I got stuck right here.



      Help me doing this using Cauchy Hadamard formula
      .









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 25 at 11:09

























      asked Aug 25 at 10:30









      yourmath

      1




      1




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let
          $$
          a_n! = n^2 cdot 2^-n!, a_k = 0 quad [k notin j!_j in mathbb N^*],
          $$
          then the series is $sum a_j x^j$. Now use Cauchy-Hadamard as you want:
          $$
          frac 1R = overline lim_k |a_k|^1/k = overline lim_n |a_n!|^1/n! = overline lim_n (n^2)^1/n! 2^-1 = frac 12,
          $$
          where
          $$
          1 leqslant (n^2)^1/n! leqslant (n^2)^1/n^2 to 1 quad [n to infty].
          $$
          Hence $R = 2$.



          UPDATE



          At endpoints $pm 2$, when $x = 2$, the series becomes $sum n^2 = +infty$. At $x = -2$, since $n!$ are even numbers for $n geqslant 2$, the series becomes $-1 + sum_2^infty n^2 = +infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thank you very much
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:22










          • Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:24











          • @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:26











          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:29







          • 1




            Glad to help you.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:33

















          up vote
          5
          down vote













          Note that$$leftlvertfrac(n+1)^22^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!n^22^-n!x^n!rightrvert=fracn+1nleftlvertfrac x2rightrvert^ntimes n!$$and that therefore$$lim_ntoinftyleftlvertfrac2^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!2^-n!x^n!rightrvert=begincases0&text if |x|<2\+infty&text if |x|>2.endcases$$So, the radius of convergence is $2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 10:52










          • This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:06










          • Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:25










          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:27






          • 1




            @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 11:30










          Your Answer




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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let
          $$
          a_n! = n^2 cdot 2^-n!, a_k = 0 quad [k notin j!_j in mathbb N^*],
          $$
          then the series is $sum a_j x^j$. Now use Cauchy-Hadamard as you want:
          $$
          frac 1R = overline lim_k |a_k|^1/k = overline lim_n |a_n!|^1/n! = overline lim_n (n^2)^1/n! 2^-1 = frac 12,
          $$
          where
          $$
          1 leqslant (n^2)^1/n! leqslant (n^2)^1/n^2 to 1 quad [n to infty].
          $$
          Hence $R = 2$.



          UPDATE



          At endpoints $pm 2$, when $x = 2$, the series becomes $sum n^2 = +infty$. At $x = -2$, since $n!$ are even numbers for $n geqslant 2$, the series becomes $-1 + sum_2^infty n^2 = +infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thank you very much
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:22










          • Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:24











          • @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:26











          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:29







          • 1




            Glad to help you.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:33














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Let
          $$
          a_n! = n^2 cdot 2^-n!, a_k = 0 quad [k notin j!_j in mathbb N^*],
          $$
          then the series is $sum a_j x^j$. Now use Cauchy-Hadamard as you want:
          $$
          frac 1R = overline lim_k |a_k|^1/k = overline lim_n |a_n!|^1/n! = overline lim_n (n^2)^1/n! 2^-1 = frac 12,
          $$
          where
          $$
          1 leqslant (n^2)^1/n! leqslant (n^2)^1/n^2 to 1 quad [n to infty].
          $$
          Hence $R = 2$.



          UPDATE



          At endpoints $pm 2$, when $x = 2$, the series becomes $sum n^2 = +infty$. At $x = -2$, since $n!$ are even numbers for $n geqslant 2$, the series becomes $-1 + sum_2^infty n^2 = +infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • Thank you very much
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:22










          • Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:24











          • @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:26











          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:29







          • 1




            Glad to help you.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:33












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Let
          $$
          a_n! = n^2 cdot 2^-n!, a_k = 0 quad [k notin j!_j in mathbb N^*],
          $$
          then the series is $sum a_j x^j$. Now use Cauchy-Hadamard as you want:
          $$
          frac 1R = overline lim_k |a_k|^1/k = overline lim_n |a_n!|^1/n! = overline lim_n (n^2)^1/n! 2^-1 = frac 12,
          $$
          where
          $$
          1 leqslant (n^2)^1/n! leqslant (n^2)^1/n^2 to 1 quad [n to infty].
          $$
          Hence $R = 2$.



          UPDATE



          At endpoints $pm 2$, when $x = 2$, the series becomes $sum n^2 = +infty$. At $x = -2$, since $n!$ are even numbers for $n geqslant 2$, the series becomes $-1 + sum_2^infty n^2 = +infty$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Let
          $$
          a_n! = n^2 cdot 2^-n!, a_k = 0 quad [k notin j!_j in mathbb N^*],
          $$
          then the series is $sum a_j x^j$. Now use Cauchy-Hadamard as you want:
          $$
          frac 1R = overline lim_k |a_k|^1/k = overline lim_n |a_n!|^1/n! = overline lim_n (n^2)^1/n! 2^-1 = frac 12,
          $$
          where
          $$
          1 leqslant (n^2)^1/n! leqslant (n^2)^1/n^2 to 1 quad [n to infty].
          $$
          Hence $R = 2$.



          UPDATE



          At endpoints $pm 2$, when $x = 2$, the series becomes $sum n^2 = +infty$. At $x = -2$, since $n!$ are even numbers for $n geqslant 2$, the series becomes $-1 + sum_2^infty n^2 = +infty$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 25 at 11:32

























          answered Aug 25 at 11:18









          xbh

          2,957216




          2,957216











          • Thank you very much
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:22










          • Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:24











          • @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:26











          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:29







          • 1




            Glad to help you.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:33
















          • Thank you very much
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:22










          • Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:24











          • @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:26











          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:29







          • 1




            Glad to help you.
            – xbh
            Aug 25 at 11:33















          Thank you very much
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:22




          Thank you very much
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:22












          Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:24





          Does the series converges at $ x= pm 2 $ ?
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:24













          @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
          – xbh
          Aug 25 at 11:26





          @yourmath Assume you meant $x = pm 2$. Just plug these values into the expression of the series and you would see immediately.
          – xbh
          Aug 25 at 11:26













          At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:29





          At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $ . Now , $ (n^2 2^2n!)^1/n! =4n^2/n! to 4 as n to infty $ . so does not converge
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:29





          1




          1




          Glad to help you.
          – xbh
          Aug 25 at 11:33




          Glad to help you.
          – xbh
          Aug 25 at 11:33










          up vote
          5
          down vote













          Note that$$leftlvertfrac(n+1)^22^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!n^22^-n!x^n!rightrvert=fracn+1nleftlvertfrac x2rightrvert^ntimes n!$$and that therefore$$lim_ntoinftyleftlvertfrac2^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!2^-n!x^n!rightrvert=begincases0&text if |x|<2\+infty&text if |x|>2.endcases$$So, the radius of convergence is $2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 10:52










          • This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:06










          • Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:25










          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:27






          • 1




            @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 11:30














          up vote
          5
          down vote













          Note that$$leftlvertfrac(n+1)^22^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!n^22^-n!x^n!rightrvert=fracn+1nleftlvertfrac x2rightrvert^ntimes n!$$and that therefore$$lim_ntoinftyleftlvertfrac2^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!2^-n!x^n!rightrvert=begincases0&text if |x|<2\+infty&text if |x|>2.endcases$$So, the radius of convergence is $2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer






















          • @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 10:52










          • This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:06










          • Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:25










          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:27






          • 1




            @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 11:30












          up vote
          5
          down vote










          up vote
          5
          down vote









          Note that$$leftlvertfrac(n+1)^22^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!n^22^-n!x^n!rightrvert=fracn+1nleftlvertfrac x2rightrvert^ntimes n!$$and that therefore$$lim_ntoinftyleftlvertfrac2^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!2^-n!x^n!rightrvert=begincases0&text if |x|<2\+infty&text if |x|>2.endcases$$So, the radius of convergence is $2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Note that$$leftlvertfrac(n+1)^22^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!n^22^-n!x^n!rightrvert=fracn+1nleftlvertfrac x2rightrvert^ntimes n!$$and that therefore$$lim_ntoinftyleftlvertfrac2^-(n+1)!x^(n+1)!2^-n!x^n!rightrvert=begincases0&text if |x|<2\+infty&text if |x|>2.endcases$$So, the radius of convergence is $2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 25 at 12:13

























          answered Aug 25 at 10:42









          José Carlos Santos

          119k16101182




          119k16101182











          • @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 10:52










          • This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:06










          • Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:25










          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:27






          • 1




            @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 11:30
















          • @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 10:52










          • This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:06










          • Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:25










          • At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
            – yourmath
            Aug 25 at 11:27






          • 1




            @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Aug 25 at 11:30















          @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Aug 25 at 10:52




          @DavideMorgante I've edited my answer. Thank you.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Aug 25 at 10:52












          This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:06




          This is nice answer. But i will request you to answer the question using Cauchy-Hadamard formula.
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:06












          Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:25




          Does the series converges at $ x=pm 2$?
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:25












          At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:27




          At $ x=pm 2 , |a_n! x^n!|=|n^2 2^n! cdot (pm 2)^n!|=|n^2 2^2 n! | $
          – yourmath
          Aug 25 at 11:27




          1




          1




          @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Aug 25 at 11:30




          @yourmath The series diverges at $pm2$, since the sequence $(n2^-n!x^n!)_ninmathbb N$ doesn't converge to $0$ then.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Aug 25 at 11:30

















           

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