Truetone comjugate symmetry [closed]
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Truetone comjugate symmetry. What is it?
borel-sets
closed as off-topic by Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500 Aug 25 at 9:41
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500
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Truetone comjugate symmetry. What is it?
borel-sets
closed as off-topic by Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500 Aug 25 at 9:41
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500
You should also give what have you tried. However, I have given you the answer below.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 5:07
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up vote
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Truetone comjugate symmetry. What is it?
borel-sets
Truetone comjugate symmetry. What is it?
borel-sets
edited 2 days ago
asked Aug 25 at 4:53
mathnewbie
274
274
closed as off-topic by Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500 Aug 25 at 9:41
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500
closed as off-topic by Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500 Aug 25 at 9:41
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." â Shailesh, Siong Thye Goh, Jendrik Stelzner, Brahadeesh, user91500
You should also give what have you tried. However, I have given you the answer below.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 5:07
add a comment |Â
You should also give what have you tried. However, I have given you the answer below.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 5:07
You should also give what have you tried. However, I have given you the answer below.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 5:07
You should also give what have you tried. However, I have given you the answer below.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 5:07
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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First, observe that $forall m geq n$, $left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) subseteq left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$. Therefore, $forall n in mathbbN$, $bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$.
Now, $bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$ because no other point can be common to all these infinitely many open intervals (We can also prove this using the Archemedian Property).
Therefore,
$$bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$$
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
First, observe that $forall m geq n$, $left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) subseteq left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$. Therefore, $forall n in mathbbN$, $bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$.
Now, $bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$ because no other point can be common to all these infinitely many open intervals (We can also prove this using the Archemedian Property).
Therefore,
$$bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$$
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
First, observe that $forall m geq n$, $left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) subseteq left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$. Therefore, $forall n in mathbbN$, $bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$.
Now, $bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$ because no other point can be common to all these infinitely many open intervals (We can also prove this using the Archemedian Property).
Therefore,
$$bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$$
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
First, observe that $forall m geq n$, $left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) subseteq left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$. Therefore, $forall n in mathbbN$, $bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$.
Now, $bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$ because no other point can be common to all these infinitely many open intervals (We can also prove this using the Archemedian Property).
Therefore,
$$bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$$
First, observe that $forall m geq n$, $left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) subseteq left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$. Therefore, $forall n in mathbbN$, $bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right)$.
Now, $bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty left( a - dfrac1n, a + dfrac1n right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$ because no other point can be common to all these infinitely many open intervals (We can also prove this using the Archemedian Property).
Therefore,
$$bigcaplimits_n = 1^infty bigcuplimits_m = n^infty left( a - dfrac1m, a + dfrac1m right) = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$$
answered Aug 25 at 5:06
Aniruddha Deshmukh
663417
663417
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
add a comment |Â
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Thanks for the answer. If I interchange the union and intersection in this question. What would the answer be? The expression would reduce to $bigcuplimits_n=1^infty a$, and finally the answer would be a?
â mathnewbie
Aug 25 at 12:24
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
Yes. That will be the case. The expression would become $bigcuplimits_n = 1^infty leftlbrace a rightrbrace = leftlbrace a rightrbrace$.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 12:41
add a comment |Â
You should also give what have you tried. However, I have given you the answer below.
â Aniruddha Deshmukh
Aug 25 at 5:07