Weak convergence implies strong convergence in $L^1$ for Fourier series?

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We say $f_n$ weakly converge to $f$ in $L^1[-π,π]$ if for each $g in L^infty[-π,π]$,



$$lim_ntoinftyint_-π^πf_n(x)g(x)dx=int_-π^πf(x)g(x)dx.$$



There is a question in my homework which I can't prove it:



For each $f in L^1[-π,π]$, the Fourier partial sums are denoted by $S_n$. If $S_n$ weak converge to $f$, then $S_n$ strongly converge to $f$.



I think maybe we need to find some specific characteristic functions to prove the statement while I failed to find it.



By the way, I made some effort below:



Using the property of weak convergence, we can prove the Fourier partial sum converge in measure, which means it has a pointwise almost everywhere convergence subsequence. There are two ways to prove the statement.



  1. Since $S_n$ is uniformly bounded(by weak convergence), it is obvious that the pointwise a.e convergence subsequence is also convergence in norm. But I don't know how to show the whole sequence is converge.

  2. I have a lemma which guarantees if I prove the pointwise a.e convergence of $S_n$, then I can prove the original statement. This lemma is very difficult to prove but I can make sure it's right. However I can't prove the pointwise a.e convergence.






share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    By strong convergence do you mean convergence in the norm of $L^1$?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 14 at 6:25










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Yes
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 7:39










  • Weak convergence shows that $||S_n||_1$ is bounded - it doesn't imply that $S_n$ is uniformly bounded...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 17:20






  • 1




    Weak convergence in $L^1(mathbb T)$ implies that $S_n$ is uniformly integrable. Maybe this can help you?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:44










  • Update. I think that my previous comment, together with the convergence in measure you already established, yield strong convergence. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitali_convergence_theorem
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:54















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2












We say $f_n$ weakly converge to $f$ in $L^1[-π,π]$ if for each $g in L^infty[-π,π]$,



$$lim_ntoinftyint_-π^πf_n(x)g(x)dx=int_-π^πf(x)g(x)dx.$$



There is a question in my homework which I can't prove it:



For each $f in L^1[-π,π]$, the Fourier partial sums are denoted by $S_n$. If $S_n$ weak converge to $f$, then $S_n$ strongly converge to $f$.



I think maybe we need to find some specific characteristic functions to prove the statement while I failed to find it.



By the way, I made some effort below:



Using the property of weak convergence, we can prove the Fourier partial sum converge in measure, which means it has a pointwise almost everywhere convergence subsequence. There are two ways to prove the statement.



  1. Since $S_n$ is uniformly bounded(by weak convergence), it is obvious that the pointwise a.e convergence subsequence is also convergence in norm. But I don't know how to show the whole sequence is converge.

  2. I have a lemma which guarantees if I prove the pointwise a.e convergence of $S_n$, then I can prove the original statement. This lemma is very difficult to prove but I can make sure it's right. However I can't prove the pointwise a.e convergence.






share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    By strong convergence do you mean convergence in the norm of $L^1$?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 14 at 6:25










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Yes
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 7:39










  • Weak convergence shows that $||S_n||_1$ is bounded - it doesn't imply that $S_n$ is uniformly bounded...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 17:20






  • 1




    Weak convergence in $L^1(mathbb T)$ implies that $S_n$ is uniformly integrable. Maybe this can help you?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:44










  • Update. I think that my previous comment, together with the convergence in measure you already established, yield strong convergence. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitali_convergence_theorem
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:54













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2






2





We say $f_n$ weakly converge to $f$ in $L^1[-π,π]$ if for each $g in L^infty[-π,π]$,



$$lim_ntoinftyint_-π^πf_n(x)g(x)dx=int_-π^πf(x)g(x)dx.$$



There is a question in my homework which I can't prove it:



For each $f in L^1[-π,π]$, the Fourier partial sums are denoted by $S_n$. If $S_n$ weak converge to $f$, then $S_n$ strongly converge to $f$.



I think maybe we need to find some specific characteristic functions to prove the statement while I failed to find it.



By the way, I made some effort below:



Using the property of weak convergence, we can prove the Fourier partial sum converge in measure, which means it has a pointwise almost everywhere convergence subsequence. There are two ways to prove the statement.



  1. Since $S_n$ is uniformly bounded(by weak convergence), it is obvious that the pointwise a.e convergence subsequence is also convergence in norm. But I don't know how to show the whole sequence is converge.

  2. I have a lemma which guarantees if I prove the pointwise a.e convergence of $S_n$, then I can prove the original statement. This lemma is very difficult to prove but I can make sure it's right. However I can't prove the pointwise a.e convergence.






share|cite|improve this question














We say $f_n$ weakly converge to $f$ in $L^1[-π,π]$ if for each $g in L^infty[-π,π]$,



$$lim_ntoinftyint_-π^πf_n(x)g(x)dx=int_-π^πf(x)g(x)dx.$$



There is a question in my homework which I can't prove it:



For each $f in L^1[-π,π]$, the Fourier partial sums are denoted by $S_n$. If $S_n$ weak converge to $f$, then $S_n$ strongly converge to $f$.



I think maybe we need to find some specific characteristic functions to prove the statement while I failed to find it.



By the way, I made some effort below:



Using the property of weak convergence, we can prove the Fourier partial sum converge in measure, which means it has a pointwise almost everywhere convergence subsequence. There are two ways to prove the statement.



  1. Since $S_n$ is uniformly bounded(by weak convergence), it is obvious that the pointwise a.e convergence subsequence is also convergence in norm. But I don't know how to show the whole sequence is converge.

  2. I have a lemma which guarantees if I prove the pointwise a.e convergence of $S_n$, then I can prove the original statement. This lemma is very difficult to prove but I can make sure it's right. However I can't prove the pointwise a.e convergence.








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edited Aug 14 at 17:15

























asked Aug 14 at 5:38









Luke Chen

163




163







  • 1




    By strong convergence do you mean convergence in the norm of $L^1$?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 14 at 6:25










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Yes
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 7:39










  • Weak convergence shows that $||S_n||_1$ is bounded - it doesn't imply that $S_n$ is uniformly bounded...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 17:20






  • 1




    Weak convergence in $L^1(mathbb T)$ implies that $S_n$ is uniformly integrable. Maybe this can help you?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:44










  • Update. I think that my previous comment, together with the convergence in measure you already established, yield strong convergence. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitali_convergence_theorem
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:54













  • 1




    By strong convergence do you mean convergence in the norm of $L^1$?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Aug 14 at 6:25










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Yes
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 7:39










  • Weak convergence shows that $||S_n||_1$ is bounded - it doesn't imply that $S_n$ is uniformly bounded...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 17:20






  • 1




    Weak convergence in $L^1(mathbb T)$ implies that $S_n$ is uniformly integrable. Maybe this can help you?
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:44










  • Update. I think that my previous comment, together with the convergence in measure you already established, yield strong convergence. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitali_convergence_theorem
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 14 at 17:54








1




1




By strong convergence do you mean convergence in the norm of $L^1$?
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Aug 14 at 6:25




By strong convergence do you mean convergence in the norm of $L^1$?
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Aug 14 at 6:25












@KaviRamaMurthy Yes
– Luke Chen
Aug 14 at 7:39




@KaviRamaMurthy Yes
– Luke Chen
Aug 14 at 7:39












Weak convergence shows that $||S_n||_1$ is bounded - it doesn't imply that $S_n$ is uniformly bounded...
– David C. Ullrich
Aug 14 at 17:20




Weak convergence shows that $||S_n||_1$ is bounded - it doesn't imply that $S_n$ is uniformly bounded...
– David C. Ullrich
Aug 14 at 17:20




1




1




Weak convergence in $L^1(mathbb T)$ implies that $S_n$ is uniformly integrable. Maybe this can help you?
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 14 at 17:44




Weak convergence in $L^1(mathbb T)$ implies that $S_n$ is uniformly integrable. Maybe this can help you?
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 14 at 17:44












Update. I think that my previous comment, together with the convergence in measure you already established, yield strong convergence. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitali_convergence_theorem
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 14 at 17:54





Update. I think that my previous comment, together with the convergence in measure you already established, yield strong convergence. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vitali_convergence_theorem
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 14 at 17:54











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote













Your formulation suggests that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for a specific function $f$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in the $L^1$ norm. I don't believe this was your homework. I think your homework was this:




Prove that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for every $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in norm for every $fin L_1(-pi,pi)$.




This is not hard to prove, because a weakly convergent sequence is norm-bounded, hence $sup_N|S_N(f)|_1<infty$ for every $fin L^1$. By the uniform boundedness principle,
$sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, where $S_N$ is viewed as an operator from $L^1$ to $L^1$. Now, if $p$ is a trigonometric polynomial, then clearly
$$|S_N(p)-p|_1to 0quadhboxas $Ntoinfty$$$
Since the trigonometric polynomials are dense in $L^1(-pi,pi)$, given $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, and $varepsilon>0$, there exists a trigonometric polynomial $p$ such that
$|p-f|_1<varepsilon$. Hence:
$$|S_N(f)-f|= |S_N(f)-S_N(p)+S_N(p)-p+p-f|leq sup_N|S_N||p-f|+|S_N(p)-p|+|p-f|$$
where all the norms are in $L^1(-pi,pi)$. The crucial point is that $sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, and so we can make the l.h.s as small as we wish for sufficiently large $N$, which proves the assertion.



I am pretty sure that the result is not true for a specific, single $fin L^1$, as it is formulated in your question, but I have no counterexample right now.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 15:23










  • I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 16:54











  • Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 17:17

















up vote
0
down vote













To prove the statement, we worked step by step.



  1. $S_n$ is bounded in $L^1$[−π,π]

This is an important property of weak convergence and I don't prove here.



  1. Dunford-Pettis Theorem here

Suppose that (X,Σ,µ) is a probability space, and that $mathscr F $ is a bounded subset of $L^1(µ)$.



$mathscr F$ is equi-integrable if and only if $mathscr F$ is a relatively compact subset of $L^1(µ)$ with the weak topology.



From this theorm, we can conclude that $S_n$ is equi-integrable.



  1. $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.

Prove: If not, we have a subsequence $S_n_k$ , $epsilon_1 >0,epsilon_2>0$, s.t



$m(x)geqslant epsilon_1$, where $m$ is Lebesgue measure.



let $E_n_k:=x$



Consider $E:=limsupE_n_k$ ,then



$m(E)=m(bigcap _j=1^infty bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)=lim_j to infty m(bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)gt 0$



$int _E(S_n_k-f)geqslant epsilon_2 *m(E) gt 0$



Contradiction!



So $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.



  1. Vitali Convergence Theorem here

$f_n$ $in$ $L^1$[−π,π], then $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$ if and only if $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in measure and $f_n$ uniformly integrable



And equi-integrable implies uniformly integrable, so we have $S_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 9:40











  • @GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 16 at 14:42










  • The error must be in Step 3.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 14:44










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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote













Your formulation suggests that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for a specific function $f$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in the $L^1$ norm. I don't believe this was your homework. I think your homework was this:




Prove that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for every $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in norm for every $fin L_1(-pi,pi)$.




This is not hard to prove, because a weakly convergent sequence is norm-bounded, hence $sup_N|S_N(f)|_1<infty$ for every $fin L^1$. By the uniform boundedness principle,
$sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, where $S_N$ is viewed as an operator from $L^1$ to $L^1$. Now, if $p$ is a trigonometric polynomial, then clearly
$$|S_N(p)-p|_1to 0quadhboxas $Ntoinfty$$$
Since the trigonometric polynomials are dense in $L^1(-pi,pi)$, given $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, and $varepsilon>0$, there exists a trigonometric polynomial $p$ such that
$|p-f|_1<varepsilon$. Hence:
$$|S_N(f)-f|= |S_N(f)-S_N(p)+S_N(p)-p+p-f|leq sup_N|S_N||p-f|+|S_N(p)-p|+|p-f|$$
where all the norms are in $L^1(-pi,pi)$. The crucial point is that $sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, and so we can make the l.h.s as small as we wish for sufficiently large $N$, which proves the assertion.



I am pretty sure that the result is not true for a specific, single $fin L^1$, as it is formulated in your question, but I have no counterexample right now.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 15:23










  • I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 16:54











  • Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 17:17














up vote
0
down vote













Your formulation suggests that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for a specific function $f$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in the $L^1$ norm. I don't believe this was your homework. I think your homework was this:




Prove that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for every $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in norm for every $fin L_1(-pi,pi)$.




This is not hard to prove, because a weakly convergent sequence is norm-bounded, hence $sup_N|S_N(f)|_1<infty$ for every $fin L^1$. By the uniform boundedness principle,
$sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, where $S_N$ is viewed as an operator from $L^1$ to $L^1$. Now, if $p$ is a trigonometric polynomial, then clearly
$$|S_N(p)-p|_1to 0quadhboxas $Ntoinfty$$$
Since the trigonometric polynomials are dense in $L^1(-pi,pi)$, given $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, and $varepsilon>0$, there exists a trigonometric polynomial $p$ such that
$|p-f|_1<varepsilon$. Hence:
$$|S_N(f)-f|= |S_N(f)-S_N(p)+S_N(p)-p+p-f|leq sup_N|S_N||p-f|+|S_N(p)-p|+|p-f|$$
where all the norms are in $L^1(-pi,pi)$. The crucial point is that $sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, and so we can make the l.h.s as small as we wish for sufficiently large $N$, which proves the assertion.



I am pretty sure that the result is not true for a specific, single $fin L^1$, as it is formulated in your question, but I have no counterexample right now.






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 15:23










  • I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 16:54











  • Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 17:17












up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Your formulation suggests that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for a specific function $f$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in the $L^1$ norm. I don't believe this was your homework. I think your homework was this:




Prove that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for every $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in norm for every $fin L_1(-pi,pi)$.




This is not hard to prove, because a weakly convergent sequence is norm-bounded, hence $sup_N|S_N(f)|_1<infty$ for every $fin L^1$. By the uniform boundedness principle,
$sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, where $S_N$ is viewed as an operator from $L^1$ to $L^1$. Now, if $p$ is a trigonometric polynomial, then clearly
$$|S_N(p)-p|_1to 0quadhboxas $Ntoinfty$$$
Since the trigonometric polynomials are dense in $L^1(-pi,pi)$, given $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, and $varepsilon>0$, there exists a trigonometric polynomial $p$ such that
$|p-f|_1<varepsilon$. Hence:
$$|S_N(f)-f|= |S_N(f)-S_N(p)+S_N(p)-p+p-f|leq sup_N|S_N||p-f|+|S_N(p)-p|+|p-f|$$
where all the norms are in $L^1(-pi,pi)$. The crucial point is that $sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, and so we can make the l.h.s as small as we wish for sufficiently large $N$, which proves the assertion.



I am pretty sure that the result is not true for a specific, single $fin L^1$, as it is formulated in your question, but I have no counterexample right now.






share|cite|improve this answer














Your formulation suggests that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for a specific function $f$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in the $L^1$ norm. I don't believe this was your homework. I think your homework was this:




Prove that if $S_N(f)$ tends weakly to $f$ for every $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, then $S_N(f)$ tends to $f$ in norm for every $fin L_1(-pi,pi)$.




This is not hard to prove, because a weakly convergent sequence is norm-bounded, hence $sup_N|S_N(f)|_1<infty$ for every $fin L^1$. By the uniform boundedness principle,
$sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, where $S_N$ is viewed as an operator from $L^1$ to $L^1$. Now, if $p$ is a trigonometric polynomial, then clearly
$$|S_N(p)-p|_1to 0quadhboxas $Ntoinfty$$$
Since the trigonometric polynomials are dense in $L^1(-pi,pi)$, given $fin L^1(-pi,pi)$, and $varepsilon>0$, there exists a trigonometric polynomial $p$ such that
$|p-f|_1<varepsilon$. Hence:
$$|S_N(f)-f|= |S_N(f)-S_N(p)+S_N(p)-p+p-f|leq sup_N|S_N||p-f|+|S_N(p)-p|+|p-f|$$
where all the norms are in $L^1(-pi,pi)$. The crucial point is that $sup_N|S_N|$ is finite, and so we can make the l.h.s as small as we wish for sufficiently large $N$, which proves the assertion.



I am pretty sure that the result is not true for a specific, single $fin L^1$, as it is formulated in your question, but I have no counterexample right now.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Aug 14 at 12:18

























answered Aug 14 at 12:12









uniquesolution

8,146723




8,146723







  • 1




    Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 15:23










  • I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 16:54











  • Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 17:17












  • 1




    Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Aug 14 at 15:23










  • I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 16:54











  • Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 14 at 17:17







1




1




Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
– David C. Ullrich
Aug 14 at 15:23




Not that I see how to prove it, but why do you think his version of the problem is wrong?
– David C. Ullrich
Aug 14 at 15:23












I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
– Luke Chen
Aug 14 at 16:54





I am sorry but it is indeed my homework. I know it's weird to say that weak convergence can imply strong convergence. However I can't prove or disprove it.
– Luke Chen
Aug 14 at 16:54













Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
– Luke Chen
Aug 14 at 17:17




Hello, I made some edit in the question .Maybe it's useful for you.Thank you!
– Luke Chen
Aug 14 at 17:17










up vote
0
down vote













To prove the statement, we worked step by step.



  1. $S_n$ is bounded in $L^1$[−π,π]

This is an important property of weak convergence and I don't prove here.



  1. Dunford-Pettis Theorem here

Suppose that (X,Σ,µ) is a probability space, and that $mathscr F $ is a bounded subset of $L^1(µ)$.



$mathscr F$ is equi-integrable if and only if $mathscr F$ is a relatively compact subset of $L^1(µ)$ with the weak topology.



From this theorm, we can conclude that $S_n$ is equi-integrable.



  1. $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.

Prove: If not, we have a subsequence $S_n_k$ , $epsilon_1 >0,epsilon_2>0$, s.t



$m(x)geqslant epsilon_1$, where $m$ is Lebesgue measure.



let $E_n_k:=x$



Consider $E:=limsupE_n_k$ ,then



$m(E)=m(bigcap _j=1^infty bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)=lim_j to infty m(bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)gt 0$



$int _E(S_n_k-f)geqslant epsilon_2 *m(E) gt 0$



Contradiction!



So $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.



  1. Vitali Convergence Theorem here

$f_n$ $in$ $L^1$[−π,π], then $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$ if and only if $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in measure and $f_n$ uniformly integrable



And equi-integrable implies uniformly integrable, so we have $S_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 9:40











  • @GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 16 at 14:42










  • The error must be in Step 3.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 14:44














up vote
0
down vote













To prove the statement, we worked step by step.



  1. $S_n$ is bounded in $L^1$[−π,π]

This is an important property of weak convergence and I don't prove here.



  1. Dunford-Pettis Theorem here

Suppose that (X,Σ,µ) is a probability space, and that $mathscr F $ is a bounded subset of $L^1(µ)$.



$mathscr F$ is equi-integrable if and only if $mathscr F$ is a relatively compact subset of $L^1(µ)$ with the weak topology.



From this theorm, we can conclude that $S_n$ is equi-integrable.



  1. $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.

Prove: If not, we have a subsequence $S_n_k$ , $epsilon_1 >0,epsilon_2>0$, s.t



$m(x)geqslant epsilon_1$, where $m$ is Lebesgue measure.



let $E_n_k:=x$



Consider $E:=limsupE_n_k$ ,then



$m(E)=m(bigcap _j=1^infty bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)=lim_j to infty m(bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)gt 0$



$int _E(S_n_k-f)geqslant epsilon_2 *m(E) gt 0$



Contradiction!



So $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.



  1. Vitali Convergence Theorem here

$f_n$ $in$ $L^1$[−π,π], then $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$ if and only if $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in measure and $f_n$ uniformly integrable



And equi-integrable implies uniformly integrable, so we have $S_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 9:40











  • @GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 16 at 14:42










  • The error must be in Step 3.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 14:44












up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









To prove the statement, we worked step by step.



  1. $S_n$ is bounded in $L^1$[−π,π]

This is an important property of weak convergence and I don't prove here.



  1. Dunford-Pettis Theorem here

Suppose that (X,Σ,µ) is a probability space, and that $mathscr F $ is a bounded subset of $L^1(µ)$.



$mathscr F$ is equi-integrable if and only if $mathscr F$ is a relatively compact subset of $L^1(µ)$ with the weak topology.



From this theorm, we can conclude that $S_n$ is equi-integrable.



  1. $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.

Prove: If not, we have a subsequence $S_n_k$ , $epsilon_1 >0,epsilon_2>0$, s.t



$m(x)geqslant epsilon_1$, where $m$ is Lebesgue measure.



let $E_n_k:=x$



Consider $E:=limsupE_n_k$ ,then



$m(E)=m(bigcap _j=1^infty bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)=lim_j to infty m(bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)gt 0$



$int _E(S_n_k-f)geqslant epsilon_2 *m(E) gt 0$



Contradiction!



So $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.



  1. Vitali Convergence Theorem here

$f_n$ $in$ $L^1$[−π,π], then $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$ if and only if $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in measure and $f_n$ uniformly integrable



And equi-integrable implies uniformly integrable, so we have $S_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$






share|cite|improve this answer












To prove the statement, we worked step by step.



  1. $S_n$ is bounded in $L^1$[−π,π]

This is an important property of weak convergence and I don't prove here.



  1. Dunford-Pettis Theorem here

Suppose that (X,Σ,µ) is a probability space, and that $mathscr F $ is a bounded subset of $L^1(µ)$.



$mathscr F$ is equi-integrable if and only if $mathscr F$ is a relatively compact subset of $L^1(µ)$ with the weak topology.



From this theorm, we can conclude that $S_n$ is equi-integrable.



  1. $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.

Prove: If not, we have a subsequence $S_n_k$ , $epsilon_1 >0,epsilon_2>0$, s.t



$m(x)geqslant epsilon_1$, where $m$ is Lebesgue measure.



let $E_n_k:=x$



Consider $E:=limsupE_n_k$ ,then



$m(E)=m(bigcap _j=1^infty bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)=lim_j to infty m(bigcup _n_k =j^inftyE_n_k)gt 0$



$int _E(S_n_k-f)geqslant epsilon_2 *m(E) gt 0$



Contradiction!



So $S_n$ is convergence to $f$ in measure.



  1. Vitali Convergence Theorem here

$f_n$ $in$ $L^1$[−π,π], then $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$ if and only if $f_n$ convergence to $f$ in measure and $f_n$ uniformly integrable



And equi-integrable implies uniformly integrable, so we have $S_n$ convergence to $f$ in $L^1$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Aug 16 at 4:23









Luke Chen

163




163











  • I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 9:40











  • @GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 16 at 14:42










  • The error must be in Step 3.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 14:44
















  • I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 9:40











  • @GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
    – Luke Chen
    Aug 16 at 14:42










  • The error must be in Step 3.
    – Giuseppe Negro
    Aug 16 at 14:44















I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 16 at 9:40





I suspect there's an error. You never used the fact that Sn is the partial Fourier sum of f. If your post were correct, this proof would apply to any weak convergent sequence, which is clearly impossible.
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 16 at 9:40













@GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
– Luke Chen
Aug 16 at 14:42




@GiuseppeNegro Well, you are right.I never used the partial sum property. But I cannot figure out where I am wrong. Step1.2.4 are obvious. I will check step 3 carefully. Thank you
– Luke Chen
Aug 16 at 14:42












The error must be in Step 3.
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 16 at 14:44




The error must be in Step 3.
– Giuseppe Negro
Aug 16 at 14:44












 

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