Does my rearrangement of the sequence to prove that - any $ninmathbb N$ can be written as the sum of Fibonacci numbers - look fine?
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I have this problem in my textbook. I spent many days to come up with the solution. While I'm quite sure about the first part of my proof, I'm unable to verify the second part (which is related to the REARRANGEMENT of the sequence and is the most important). Some users have left comments and I responded to every of these comments, but they seem to stop interact with me.
Any $ninmathbb N$ can be written as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
My attempt:
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2,$ and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$.
Assume the contrary, then set $T$ consisting of positive integers that can NOT be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers is non-empty.
Let $m_0=min T$, then $m_0=m+2$ for some $m$. As a result, $m,m+1notin T$ and therefore can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
We define: $E_n$ is an F-expression of $niffbegincases
tin E_nimplies ttext is a Fibonacci number \
sum_tin E_nt=n \
endcases$
It' clear that $knotin Timplies$ there exists an F-expression of $k$.
Since $mnotin T$, then there exists an F-expression of $m$ and, for any $E_m$, $2in E_m$ (If not, $2cup E_m$ will be an F-expression of $m+2$, and consequently $m+2notin F$, which is a contradiction). Similarly, $1in E_m+1$, then $E_m+1setminus1$ is an F-expression of $m$, then $2in E_m+1setminus1$, then $2in E_m+1$. Hence $1,2in E_m+1$ for any $E_m+1$.
Let $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$, then $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$ and $f_m_1+1notin E_m+1$. We have two cases in total:
I'm not sure about the correctness of the below part. Please help me check it out.
- $m_1=2k$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=(f_1+f_2)+(f_3+f_4)+...+(f_2k-1+f_2k)+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_2k+1+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$
Thus $m+2=1+(f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...)=f_1+f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$, then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
- $m_1=2k+1$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=f_1+f_2+...+f_2k+f_2k+1+...=f_1+(f_2+f_3)+...+(f_2k+f_2k+1)+...=f_1+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...implies m=f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ $implies m+2=2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...=f_2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ Then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
Thus $T=emptyset$. This completes the proof.
proof-verification fibonacci-numbers
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I have this problem in my textbook. I spent many days to come up with the solution. While I'm quite sure about the first part of my proof, I'm unable to verify the second part (which is related to the REARRANGEMENT of the sequence and is the most important). Some users have left comments and I responded to every of these comments, but they seem to stop interact with me.
Any $ninmathbb N$ can be written as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
My attempt:
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2,$ and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$.
Assume the contrary, then set $T$ consisting of positive integers that can NOT be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers is non-empty.
Let $m_0=min T$, then $m_0=m+2$ for some $m$. As a result, $m,m+1notin T$ and therefore can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
We define: $E_n$ is an F-expression of $niffbegincases
tin E_nimplies ttext is a Fibonacci number \
sum_tin E_nt=n \
endcases$
It' clear that $knotin Timplies$ there exists an F-expression of $k$.
Since $mnotin T$, then there exists an F-expression of $m$ and, for any $E_m$, $2in E_m$ (If not, $2cup E_m$ will be an F-expression of $m+2$, and consequently $m+2notin F$, which is a contradiction). Similarly, $1in E_m+1$, then $E_m+1setminus1$ is an F-expression of $m$, then $2in E_m+1setminus1$, then $2in E_m+1$. Hence $1,2in E_m+1$ for any $E_m+1$.
Let $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$, then $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$ and $f_m_1+1notin E_m+1$. We have two cases in total:
I'm not sure about the correctness of the below part. Please help me check it out.
- $m_1=2k$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=(f_1+f_2)+(f_3+f_4)+...+(f_2k-1+f_2k)+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_2k+1+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$
Thus $m+2=1+(f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...)=f_1+f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$, then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
- $m_1=2k+1$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=f_1+f_2+...+f_2k+f_2k+1+...=f_1+(f_2+f_3)+...+(f_2k+f_2k+1)+...=f_1+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...implies m=f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ $implies m+2=2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...=f_2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ Then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
Thus $T=emptyset$. This completes the proof.
proof-verification fibonacci-numbers
Are there one or more typos in the following? Let m1=minnâÂÂNâ£fnâÂÂEm+1â§fn+1âÂÂEm+1, then (nâ¤mâ¹fnâÂÂEm+1) and fm1+1âÂÂEm+1.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:24
Thank you @SteveB, there is actually a typo. It should be $nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1$ rather than $nleq mimplies f_nin E_m+1$.
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 6:31
1) How does n < $m_1$ imply that $f_nin E_m+1)$? 2) $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$? Surely m+1 is not the sum of an infinite series of Fibonacci numbers.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:46
Simpler proof: consider the Fibonacci numbers $1,2,3,5,ldots$ (that is, leave out the initial $0,1$). Suppose $f_kle n<f_k+1$. Since $f_k+1le2f_k$ we have $n=(n-f_k)+f_k$ with $n-f_k<f_k$. If $n-f_k=0$ we are finished, otherwise by induction we may assume $n-f_k$ is a sum of increasing Fibonacci numbers.
â David
Aug 10 at 6:53
@SteveB For 1: In order to have that property, I have changed $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$. For 2: since $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$, then $f_nmid 1leq nleq m_1subseteq E_m+1$, and consequently $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 9:00
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show 4 more comments
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up vote
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I have this problem in my textbook. I spent many days to come up with the solution. While I'm quite sure about the first part of my proof, I'm unable to verify the second part (which is related to the REARRANGEMENT of the sequence and is the most important). Some users have left comments and I responded to every of these comments, but they seem to stop interact with me.
Any $ninmathbb N$ can be written as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
My attempt:
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2,$ and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$.
Assume the contrary, then set $T$ consisting of positive integers that can NOT be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers is non-empty.
Let $m_0=min T$, then $m_0=m+2$ for some $m$. As a result, $m,m+1notin T$ and therefore can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
We define: $E_n$ is an F-expression of $niffbegincases
tin E_nimplies ttext is a Fibonacci number \
sum_tin E_nt=n \
endcases$
It' clear that $knotin Timplies$ there exists an F-expression of $k$.
Since $mnotin T$, then there exists an F-expression of $m$ and, for any $E_m$, $2in E_m$ (If not, $2cup E_m$ will be an F-expression of $m+2$, and consequently $m+2notin F$, which is a contradiction). Similarly, $1in E_m+1$, then $E_m+1setminus1$ is an F-expression of $m$, then $2in E_m+1setminus1$, then $2in E_m+1$. Hence $1,2in E_m+1$ for any $E_m+1$.
Let $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$, then $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$ and $f_m_1+1notin E_m+1$. We have two cases in total:
I'm not sure about the correctness of the below part. Please help me check it out.
- $m_1=2k$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=(f_1+f_2)+(f_3+f_4)+...+(f_2k-1+f_2k)+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_2k+1+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$
Thus $m+2=1+(f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...)=f_1+f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$, then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
- $m_1=2k+1$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=f_1+f_2+...+f_2k+f_2k+1+...=f_1+(f_2+f_3)+...+(f_2k+f_2k+1)+...=f_1+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...implies m=f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ $implies m+2=2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...=f_2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ Then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
Thus $T=emptyset$. This completes the proof.
proof-verification fibonacci-numbers
I have this problem in my textbook. I spent many days to come up with the solution. While I'm quite sure about the first part of my proof, I'm unable to verify the second part (which is related to the REARRANGEMENT of the sequence and is the most important). Some users have left comments and I responded to every of these comments, but they seem to stop interact with me.
Any $ninmathbb N$ can be written as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
My attempt:
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2,$ and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$.
Assume the contrary, then set $T$ consisting of positive integers that can NOT be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers is non-empty.
Let $m_0=min T$, then $m_0=m+2$ for some $m$. As a result, $m,m+1notin T$ and therefore can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers.
We define: $E_n$ is an F-expression of $niffbegincases
tin E_nimplies ttext is a Fibonacci number \
sum_tin E_nt=n \
endcases$
It' clear that $knotin Timplies$ there exists an F-expression of $k$.
Since $mnotin T$, then there exists an F-expression of $m$ and, for any $E_m$, $2in E_m$ (If not, $2cup E_m$ will be an F-expression of $m+2$, and consequently $m+2notin F$, which is a contradiction). Similarly, $1in E_m+1$, then $E_m+1setminus1$ is an F-expression of $m$, then $2in E_m+1setminus1$, then $2in E_m+1$. Hence $1,2in E_m+1$ for any $E_m+1$.
Let $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$, then $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$ and $f_m_1+1notin E_m+1$. We have two cases in total:
I'm not sure about the correctness of the below part. Please help me check it out.
- $m_1=2k$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=(f_1+f_2)+(f_3+f_4)+...+(f_2k-1+f_2k)+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_2k+1+...=f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$
Thus $m+2=1+(f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...)=f_1+f_3+f_5+...+f_m_1+1+...$, then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
- $m_1=2k+1$
As a result, $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...=f_1+f_2+...+f_2k+f_2k+1+...=f_1+(f_2+f_3)+...+(f_2k+f_2k+1)+...=f_1+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...implies m=f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ $implies m+2=2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...=f_2+f_4+...+f_2k+2+...$ Then $m+2$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers, and consequently $m+2notin T$, which is a contradiction.
Thus $T=emptyset$. This completes the proof.
proof-verification fibonacci-numbers
edited Aug 14 at 23:32
asked Aug 10 at 5:20
Le Anh Dung
735318
735318
Are there one or more typos in the following? Let m1=minnâÂÂNâ£fnâÂÂEm+1â§fn+1âÂÂEm+1, then (nâ¤mâ¹fnâÂÂEm+1) and fm1+1âÂÂEm+1.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:24
Thank you @SteveB, there is actually a typo. It should be $nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1$ rather than $nleq mimplies f_nin E_m+1$.
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 6:31
1) How does n < $m_1$ imply that $f_nin E_m+1)$? 2) $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$? Surely m+1 is not the sum of an infinite series of Fibonacci numbers.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:46
Simpler proof: consider the Fibonacci numbers $1,2,3,5,ldots$ (that is, leave out the initial $0,1$). Suppose $f_kle n<f_k+1$. Since $f_k+1le2f_k$ we have $n=(n-f_k)+f_k$ with $n-f_k<f_k$. If $n-f_k=0$ we are finished, otherwise by induction we may assume $n-f_k$ is a sum of increasing Fibonacci numbers.
â David
Aug 10 at 6:53
@SteveB For 1: In order to have that property, I have changed $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$. For 2: since $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$, then $f_nmid 1leq nleq m_1subseteq E_m+1$, and consequently $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 9:00
 |Â
show 4 more comments
Are there one or more typos in the following? Let m1=minnâÂÂNâ£fnâÂÂEm+1â§fn+1âÂÂEm+1, then (nâ¤mâ¹fnâÂÂEm+1) and fm1+1âÂÂEm+1.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:24
Thank you @SteveB, there is actually a typo. It should be $nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1$ rather than $nleq mimplies f_nin E_m+1$.
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 6:31
1) How does n < $m_1$ imply that $f_nin E_m+1)$? 2) $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$? Surely m+1 is not the sum of an infinite series of Fibonacci numbers.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:46
Simpler proof: consider the Fibonacci numbers $1,2,3,5,ldots$ (that is, leave out the initial $0,1$). Suppose $f_kle n<f_k+1$. Since $f_k+1le2f_k$ we have $n=(n-f_k)+f_k$ with $n-f_k<f_k$. If $n-f_k=0$ we are finished, otherwise by induction we may assume $n-f_k$ is a sum of increasing Fibonacci numbers.
â David
Aug 10 at 6:53
@SteveB For 1: In order to have that property, I have changed $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$. For 2: since $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$, then $f_nmid 1leq nleq m_1subseteq E_m+1$, and consequently $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 9:00
Are there one or more typos in the following? Let m1=minnâÂÂNâ£fnâÂÂEm+1â§fn+1âÂÂEm+1, then (nâ¤mâ¹fnâÂÂEm+1) and fm1+1âÂÂEm+1.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:24
Are there one or more typos in the following? Let m1=minnâÂÂNâ£fnâÂÂEm+1â§fn+1âÂÂEm+1, then (nâ¤mâ¹fnâÂÂEm+1) and fm1+1âÂÂEm+1.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:24
Thank you @SteveB, there is actually a typo. It should be $nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1$ rather than $nleq mimplies f_nin E_m+1$.
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 6:31
Thank you @SteveB, there is actually a typo. It should be $nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1$ rather than $nleq mimplies f_nin E_m+1$.
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 6:31
1) How does n < $m_1$ imply that $f_nin E_m+1)$? 2) $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$? Surely m+1 is not the sum of an infinite series of Fibonacci numbers.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:46
1) How does n < $m_1$ imply that $f_nin E_m+1)$? 2) $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$? Surely m+1 is not the sum of an infinite series of Fibonacci numbers.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:46
Simpler proof: consider the Fibonacci numbers $1,2,3,5,ldots$ (that is, leave out the initial $0,1$). Suppose $f_kle n<f_k+1$. Since $f_k+1le2f_k$ we have $n=(n-f_k)+f_k$ with $n-f_k<f_k$. If $n-f_k=0$ we are finished, otherwise by induction we may assume $n-f_k$ is a sum of increasing Fibonacci numbers.
â David
Aug 10 at 6:53
Simpler proof: consider the Fibonacci numbers $1,2,3,5,ldots$ (that is, leave out the initial $0,1$). Suppose $f_kle n<f_k+1$. Since $f_k+1le2f_k$ we have $n=(n-f_k)+f_k$ with $n-f_k<f_k$. If $n-f_k=0$ we are finished, otherwise by induction we may assume $n-f_k$ is a sum of increasing Fibonacci numbers.
â David
Aug 10 at 6:53
@SteveB For 1: In order to have that property, I have changed $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$. For 2: since $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$, then $f_nmid 1leq nleq m_1subseteq E_m+1$, and consequently $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 9:00
@SteveB For 1: In order to have that property, I have changed $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$. For 2: since $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$, then $f_nmid 1leq nleq m_1subseteq E_m+1$, and consequently $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 9:00
 |Â
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On the basis of @David's comment, I present a proof here.
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2$, and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$. I will prove this theorem by strong induction on $n$. Assume that the theorem is true for all $k<n$.
It's clear that there exists $t$ such that $f_tleq n<f_t+1$. We have $f_t+1=f_t+f_t-1$, then $f_t+1-f_t=f_t-1<f_t$. We also have $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ where $n-f_t<f_t+1-f_t<f_tleq n$. Thus $n-f_t<n$.
If $n-f_t=0$, we are done.
If $n-f_t>0$, then apply Inductive Hypothesis to $(n-f_t)$. Hence $(n-f_t)$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers where each term is strictly less than $f_t$ (since $n-f_t<f_t$). Thus $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ can be expressed as the sum of the above-mentioned sequence and $f_t$. This completes the proof.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
On the basis of @David's comment, I present a proof here.
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2$, and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$. I will prove this theorem by strong induction on $n$. Assume that the theorem is true for all $k<n$.
It's clear that there exists $t$ such that $f_tleq n<f_t+1$. We have $f_t+1=f_t+f_t-1$, then $f_t+1-f_t=f_t-1<f_t$. We also have $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ where $n-f_t<f_t+1-f_t<f_tleq n$. Thus $n-f_t<n$.
If $n-f_t=0$, we are done.
If $n-f_t>0$, then apply Inductive Hypothesis to $(n-f_t)$. Hence $(n-f_t)$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers where each term is strictly less than $f_t$ (since $n-f_t<f_t$). Thus $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ can be expressed as the sum of the above-mentioned sequence and $f_t$. This completes the proof.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
On the basis of @David's comment, I present a proof here.
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2$, and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$. I will prove this theorem by strong induction on $n$. Assume that the theorem is true for all $k<n$.
It's clear that there exists $t$ such that $f_tleq n<f_t+1$. We have $f_t+1=f_t+f_t-1$, then $f_t+1-f_t=f_t-1<f_t$. We also have $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ where $n-f_t<f_t+1-f_t<f_tleq n$. Thus $n-f_t<n$.
If $n-f_t=0$, we are done.
If $n-f_t>0$, then apply Inductive Hypothesis to $(n-f_t)$. Hence $(n-f_t)$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers where each term is strictly less than $f_t$ (since $n-f_t<f_t$). Thus $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ can be expressed as the sum of the above-mentioned sequence and $f_t$. This completes the proof.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
On the basis of @David's comment, I present a proof here.
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2$, and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$. I will prove this theorem by strong induction on $n$. Assume that the theorem is true for all $k<n$.
It's clear that there exists $t$ such that $f_tleq n<f_t+1$. We have $f_t+1=f_t+f_t-1$, then $f_t+1-f_t=f_t-1<f_t$. We also have $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ where $n-f_t<f_t+1-f_t<f_tleq n$. Thus $n-f_t<n$.
If $n-f_t=0$, we are done.
If $n-f_t>0$, then apply Inductive Hypothesis to $(n-f_t)$. Hence $(n-f_t)$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers where each term is strictly less than $f_t$ (since $n-f_t<f_t$). Thus $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ can be expressed as the sum of the above-mentioned sequence and $f_t$. This completes the proof.
On the basis of @David's comment, I present a proof here.
Let $(f_nmid ninmathbb N^*)$ be the Fibonacci sequence such that $f_1=1,f_2=2$, and $f_n+2=f_n+1+f_n$. I will prove this theorem by strong induction on $n$. Assume that the theorem is true for all $k<n$.
It's clear that there exists $t$ such that $f_tleq n<f_t+1$. We have $f_t+1=f_t+f_t-1$, then $f_t+1-f_t=f_t-1<f_t$. We also have $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ where $n-f_t<f_t+1-f_t<f_tleq n$. Thus $n-f_t<n$.
If $n-f_t=0$, we are done.
If $n-f_t>0$, then apply Inductive Hypothesis to $(n-f_t)$. Hence $(n-f_t)$ can be expressed as the sum of a strictly increasing sequence of Fibonacci numbers where each term is strictly less than $f_t$ (since $n-f_t<f_t$). Thus $n=(n-f_t)+f_t$ can be expressed as the sum of the above-mentioned sequence and $f_t$. This completes the proof.
answered Aug 10 at 13:13
Le Anh Dung
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Are there one or more typos in the following? Let m1=minnâÂÂNâ£fnâÂÂEm+1â§fn+1âÂÂEm+1, then (nâ¤mâ¹fnâÂÂEm+1) and fm1+1âÂÂEm+1.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:24
Thank you @SteveB, there is actually a typo. It should be $nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1$ rather than $nleq mimplies f_nin E_m+1$.
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 6:31
1) How does n < $m_1$ imply that $f_nin E_m+1)$? 2) $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$? Surely m+1 is not the sum of an infinite series of Fibonacci numbers.
â Steve B
Aug 10 at 6:46
Simpler proof: consider the Fibonacci numbers $1,2,3,5,ldots$ (that is, leave out the initial $0,1$). Suppose $f_kle n<f_k+1$. Since $f_k+1le2f_k$ we have $n=(n-f_k)+f_k$ with $n-f_k<f_k$. If $n-f_k=0$ we are finished, otherwise by induction we may assume $n-f_k$ is a sum of increasing Fibonacci numbers.
â David
Aug 10 at 6:53
@SteveB For 1: In order to have that property, I have changed $m_1=minninmathbb Nmid f_n+1notin E_m+1$. For 2: since $(nleq m_1implies f_nin E_m+1)$, then $f_nmid 1leq nleq m_1subseteq E_m+1$, and consequently $m+1=f_1+f_2+...+f_m_1+...$
â Le Anh Dung
Aug 10 at 9:00