Cardinality of generated rings and generated modules
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:
$(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.
This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:
$R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$
We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:
$vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.
$(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:
$vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.
abstract-algebra proof-verification ring-theory modules set-theory
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I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:
$(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.
This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:
$R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$
We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:
$vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.
$(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:
$vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.
abstract-algebra proof-verification ring-theory modules set-theory
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:
$(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.
This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:
$R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$
We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:
$vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.
$(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:
$vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.
abstract-algebra proof-verification ring-theory modules set-theory
I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:
$(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.
This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:
$R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$
We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:
$vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.
$(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:
$vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.
abstract-algebra proof-verification ring-theory modules set-theory
asked Aug 14 at 6:57
Keen-ameteur
714213
714213
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1 Answer
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Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.
There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
$$
|Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
$$
so we can conclude that
$$
|S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
$$
It is known that
$$
|Rtimes S|=begincases
|R| & text$ \[4px]
|S| & textS
endcases
$$
Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.
If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.
What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.
There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
$$
|Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
$$
so we can conclude that
$$
|S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
$$
It is known that
$$
|Rtimes S|=begincases
|R| & text$ \[4px]
|S| & textS
endcases
$$
Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.
If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.
What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.
There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
$$
|Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
$$
so we can conclude that
$$
|S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
$$
It is known that
$$
|Rtimes S|=begincases
|R| & text$ \[4px]
|S| & textS
endcases
$$
Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.
If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.
What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.
There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
$$
|Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
$$
so we can conclude that
$$
|S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
$$
It is known that
$$
|Rtimes S|=begincases
|R| & text$ \[4px]
|S| & textS
endcases
$$
Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.
If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.
What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.
Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.
There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
$$
|Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
$$
so we can conclude that
$$
|S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
$$
It is known that
$$
|Rtimes S|=begincases
|R| & text$ \[4px]
|S| & textS
endcases
$$
Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.
If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.
What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.
answered Aug 14 at 9:31
egreg
165k1180187
165k1180187
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
add a comment |Â
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 10:06
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
@Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
â egreg
Aug 14 at 10:13
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
â Keen-ameteur
Aug 14 at 11:24
add a comment |Â
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