Cardinality of generated rings and generated modules

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I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:



$(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.



This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:



$R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$



We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:



$vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.



$(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:



$vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.







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    up vote
    1
    down vote

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    I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:



    $(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.



    This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:



    $R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$



    We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:



    $vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.



    $(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:



    $vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:



      $(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.



      This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:



      $R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$



      We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:



      $vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.



      $(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:



      $vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.







      share|cite|improve this question












      I've once asked a similar question only about groups, but I am interested whether the logic is still sound:



      $(1)$Let $S$ be a generating set of a ring $R$, and denote $kappa=vert Svert$. Then $vert Rvert leq kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R vert leq aleph_0$.



      This is because any element is written as a finite sum of finite products of elements in $S$. Thus if we denote:



      $R_n,m:=Big underseti=1oversetnsum undersetj=1oversetm_iprod a_i,j Bigvert m_ileq m, ; a_i,j subseteq S Big$



      We can see that $R=undersetn,m=1oversetinftycupR_n,m$. Hence:



      $vert Rvertleq undersetn=1oversetinftysumundersetm=1oversetinftysumvert R_n,mvert$. Where if $kappageq aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert=kappa$, and if $kappa<aleph_0$ then $vert R_n,mvert leq aleph_0$.



      $(2)$The natural follow up question (using similar logic) is for a Module $M$ over a ring $R$, if $S$ generates the module $M$ such that $vert Svert= kappageq aleph_0$ is it true that:



      $vert M vert=kappa$ if $kappa geq vert Rvert$, and $vert Mvert=vert Rvert$ if $vert Rvert>kappa$.









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Aug 14 at 6:57









      Keen-ameteur

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          Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.



          There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
          $$
          |Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
          $$
          so we can conclude that
          $$
          |S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
          $$



          It is known that
          $$
          |Rtimes S|=begincases
          |R| & text$ \[4px]
          |S| & textS
          endcases
          $$



          Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.



          If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.



          What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 10:06










          • @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
            – egreg
            Aug 14 at 10:13










          • I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 11:24










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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

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          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.



          There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
          $$
          |Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
          $$
          so we can conclude that
          $$
          |S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
          $$



          It is known that
          $$
          |Rtimes S|=begincases
          |R| & text$ \[4px]
          |S| & textS
          endcases
          $$



          Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.



          If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.



          What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 10:06










          • @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
            – egreg
            Aug 14 at 10:13










          • I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 11:24














          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.



          There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
          $$
          |Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
          $$
          so we can conclude that
          $$
          |S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
          $$



          It is known that
          $$
          |Rtimes S|=begincases
          |R| & text$ \[4px]
          |S| & textS
          endcases
          $$



          Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.



          If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.



          What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 10:06










          • @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
            – egreg
            Aug 14 at 10:13










          • I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 11:24












          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.



          There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
          $$
          |Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
          $$
          so we can conclude that
          $$
          |S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
          $$



          It is known that
          $$
          |Rtimes S|=begincases
          |R| & text$ \[4px]
          |S| & textS
          endcases
          $$



          Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.



          If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.



          What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Let's work under the assumption that both $|R|$ and $|S|$ are infinite. You can work out the other cases.



          There is a surjective map from the set $Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)$ of finite sequences from the set $Rtimes S$ onto the set $M$. By standard cardinality arguments,
          $$
          |Sigma_<omega(Rtimes S)|=|Rtimes S|
          $$
          so we can conclude that
          $$
          |S|le|M|le|Rtimes S|
          $$



          It is known that
          $$
          |Rtimes S|=begincases
          |R| & text$ \[4px]
          |S| & textS
          endcases
          $$



          Therefore, if $|R|le|S|$ you can argue that $|M|=|S|$.



          If $|S|<|R|$, one can have $|M|<|R|$. Let $R=J_p$ be the ring of $p$-adic integers; then $R/pR$ is finite (isomorphic to $mathbbZ/pmathbbZ$) and we can consider the module $M=(R/pR)^(aleph_0)$ (countable direct sum of copies of $R/pR$). Then we can take $S=M$ and $|S|=|M|=aleph_0$, but $|R|=2^aleph_0$.



          What's the obstruction? There is no injective homomorphism (no injective map, actually) $Rto M$, in this case.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 14 at 9:31









          egreg

          165k1180187




          165k1180187











          • Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 10:06










          • @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
            – egreg
            Aug 14 at 10:13










          • I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 11:24
















          • Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 10:06










          • @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
            – egreg
            Aug 14 at 10:13










          • I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
            – Keen-ameteur
            Aug 14 at 11:24















          Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
          – Keen-ameteur
          Aug 14 at 10:06




          Would it be true then to say that $vert Mvert leq vert Rvert$ always? or is this also not necessarily true?
          – Keen-ameteur
          Aug 14 at 10:06












          @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
          – egreg
          Aug 14 at 10:13




          @Keen-ameteur If $|S|>|R|$, then $|M|=|S|>|R|$ (infinite case).
          – egreg
          Aug 14 at 10:13












          I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
          – Keen-ameteur
          Aug 14 at 11:24




          I should have been more clear, the additional question I asked was if one adds the assumption that $vert Svert leq vert Rvert$.
          – Keen-ameteur
          Aug 14 at 11:24












           

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