Exponential Generating Function For Derangements
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
I have been introduced to the concept of exponential generating functions a few days ago. However, my understanding of them are still quite limited, and I would like to see some examples. Earlier this term, I derived a formula for the number of derangements of size $n$ using the inclusion/exclusion principle, namely that $D_n = n!sum_k=0^inftyfrac(-1)^kk!$. How would I go about deriving this result using exponential generating functions, without using the inclusion/exclusion principle to derive $D_n$. The formula we are using for the these generating functions are $Phi_D(x) = sum_n=0^infty|D_n|fracx^nn!$.
If anyone could walk me through this example, I would greatly appreciate it :)
Thanks!
combinatorics permutations generating-functions
add a comment |Â
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
I have been introduced to the concept of exponential generating functions a few days ago. However, my understanding of them are still quite limited, and I would like to see some examples. Earlier this term, I derived a formula for the number of derangements of size $n$ using the inclusion/exclusion principle, namely that $D_n = n!sum_k=0^inftyfrac(-1)^kk!$. How would I go about deriving this result using exponential generating functions, without using the inclusion/exclusion principle to derive $D_n$. The formula we are using for the these generating functions are $Phi_D(x) = sum_n=0^infty|D_n|fracx^nn!$.
If anyone could walk me through this example, I would greatly appreciate it :)
Thanks!
combinatorics permutations generating-functions
add a comment |Â
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
I have been introduced to the concept of exponential generating functions a few days ago. However, my understanding of them are still quite limited, and I would like to see some examples. Earlier this term, I derived a formula for the number of derangements of size $n$ using the inclusion/exclusion principle, namely that $D_n = n!sum_k=0^inftyfrac(-1)^kk!$. How would I go about deriving this result using exponential generating functions, without using the inclusion/exclusion principle to derive $D_n$. The formula we are using for the these generating functions are $Phi_D(x) = sum_n=0^infty|D_n|fracx^nn!$.
If anyone could walk me through this example, I would greatly appreciate it :)
Thanks!
combinatorics permutations generating-functions
I have been introduced to the concept of exponential generating functions a few days ago. However, my understanding of them are still quite limited, and I would like to see some examples. Earlier this term, I derived a formula for the number of derangements of size $n$ using the inclusion/exclusion principle, namely that $D_n = n!sum_k=0^inftyfrac(-1)^kk!$. How would I go about deriving this result using exponential generating functions, without using the inclusion/exclusion principle to derive $D_n$. The formula we are using for the these generating functions are $Phi_D(x) = sum_n=0^infty|D_n|fracx^nn!$.
If anyone could walk me through this example, I would greatly appreciate it :)
Thanks!
combinatorics permutations generating-functions
edited Aug 14 at 4:57
joriki
165k10180329
165k10180329
asked Nov 19 '12 at 4:05
Nizbel99
289417
289417
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
up vote
16
down vote
accepted
HereâÂÂs one way. Start with the recurrence $d_n+1=nd_n+nd_n-1$, where $d_n$ is the number of derangements of $[n]=1,dots,n$. Multiply by $fracx^nn!$ and sum over $nge 0$:
$$sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!+sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;.tag1$$
(Here I make the assumption that $d_-1=0$: this is consistent with the recurrence, so it causes no problems.) Let $$D(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^nn!$$ be the exponential generating function in question. Then $$D,'(x)=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 1d_nfracx^n-1(n-1)!=sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!;,tag2$$
$$xD,'(x)=xsum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!;,tag3$$
and $$xD(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^n+1n!=sum_nge 0(n+1)d_nfracx^n+1(n+1)!=sum_nge 1nd_n-1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;,tag4$$ since by convention $d_-1=0$.
Compare $(2),(3)$, and $(4)$ with $(1)$, and youâÂÂll see that
$$D,'(x)=xD,'(x)+xD(x);,$$ or $$(1-x)D,'(x)=xD(x);.$$ This is a separable differential equation,
$$fracD,'(x)D(x)=fracx1-x=-1+frac11-x;,$$
which you can now solve for $D(x)$ by first-year calculus.
HereâÂÂs another way, quicker but sneakier. For any particular set $K$ of $k$ elements of $[n]$ there are $d_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ that have $K$ as their set of fixed points. There are $binomnk$ such subsets $K$, so there are $binomnkd_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ with exactly $k$ fixed points. Since there are $n!$ permutations of $[n]$ altogether, $$sum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k=n!;.tag5$$ The lefthand side of $(5)$ is the $n$-th term of the binomial convolution of the sequences $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$, so the exponential generating function (egf) of the sequence
$$leftlanglesum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k:ninBbb Nrightrangle=langle n!:ninBbb Nrangle$$
is the product of the egfs of $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$. Clearly $$sum_nge 0n!fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0x^n=frac11-x$$ and $$sum_nge 01cdotfracx^nn!=e^x;,$$ so $$e^xD(x)=frac11-x;,$$ and $$D(x)=frace^-x1-x;.$$
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
1
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
1
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
1
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
 |Â
show 11 more comments
up vote
10
down vote
Another way: There are $n!$ permutations in all. A permutation with $k$ fixed points shuffles the other $n - k$ elements around without fixed points, the $k$ fixed points can be selected in $binomnk$ ways. So:
$$
n! = sum_0 le k le n binomnk d_n -k
$$
This is a binomial convolution, using Mike Spivey's notation that gives:
$$
beginalign*
frac11 - x &= G_D(x) e^x \
G_D(x) &= frace^-x1 - x
endalign*
$$
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
There's a shorter way even than the two in Brian's nice answer. Starting from the recurrence $D_n = n D_n-1 + (-1)^n$, multiply by $x^n/n!$ and sum over $n geq 1$ to get
beginalign
&sum_n geq 1 D_n fracx^nn! = sum_n geq 1 n D_n-1 fracx^nn! + sum_n geq 1 (-1)^n fracx^nn! \
implies & G_D(x) - 1 = x sum_n geq 1 D_n-1 fracx^n-1(n-1)! + e^-x - 1, text as $D_0 = 1$ \
implies & G_D(x) = x G_D(x) + e^-x,
endalign
which tells you that the exponential generating function is $$G_D(x) = frace^-x1-x.$$
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
8
down vote
Yet another couple of ways.
Method 1.
$$mathcalD = operatornameSscriptsize ET(operatornameCscriptsize YC_> 1) implies D(z) = expleft(ln frac11-z - zright) = frace^-z1-z.$$
Explanation: A derangement, a permutation with no fixed points, is a set of cycles each containing more than one element. The EGF for such cycles can be got by either taking the known EGF for all cycles, namely $C(z) = lnfrac11-z$, and subtracting the term "$z$" that corresponds to the unique cycle of length $1$, or, if you don't know $C(z)$, with explicit counting as
$$C_>1(z) = sum_n ge 2 (n-1)! fracz^nn! = sum_nge 2fracz^nn = ln frac11-z - z$$
And as derangements are sets of such cycles, their EGF is the exponential of the EGF of such cycles. (This setâÂÂexp-of-EGFs fact is also known as the exponential formula.)
Note that the above aproach also easily gives the generating function for the number of permutations with all cycles of length greater than $r$ for any $r$ (derangements is the $r=1$ case): it's
$$D_r(z) = expleft(sum_n > r fracz^rrright) = frace^-z-z^2/2 - dots - z^r/r1-z.$$
Of course, the $r=0$ case simply gives the EGF of all permutations, $explnfrac11-z = frac11-z$, as expected.
Method 2.
This is a generating-functions analogue of the inclusion-exclusion principle. Though it is overkill for this problem, here it is as an illustration.
Let $mathcalP$ be the class of all permutations, and let $mathcalQ$ be the class of all permutations with some subset of their fixed-points (possibly none, possibly all) specially distinguished. Viewing it differently, any member of $mathcalQ$ is got by taking an arbitrary permutation and inserting a set of fixed points in it: $mathcalQ = mathcalP star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)$. Using the variable $z$ to mark size and the variable $v$ to mark the distinguished fixed points, we get the (bivariate) EGF $Q(z,v) = frac11-ze^zv$.
Now if $P(z, u)$ is the EGF for permutations where $z$ marks size and $u$ marks the fixed points, the act of "distinguishing" some of the fixed points corresponds to the substitution $1 + v$ for $u$ in the EGF for permutations: every fixed point (marked by $u$) is either distinguished (marked by $v$) or not (unmarked). So we have $Q(z, v) = P(z, 1 + v)$ or equivalently $P(z, u) = Q(z, u - 1) = dfrace^z(u-1)1-z$. The EGF of derangements is got by setting $u = 0$ in the above:
$$D(z) = P(z, 0) = frace^-z1-z$$
This approach also gives the EGF number of permutations with exactly $k$ fixed points, as the coefficient of $u^k$ in the above: it's $dfracz^kk!dfrace^-z1-z$.
References: Both the above are from the book Analytic Combinatorics by Flajolet and Sedgewick, pp. 122âÂÂ123 and 207âÂÂ208 respectively.
Of course, a simpler observation is that any permutation is a derangement along with a set of fixed points added, so
$$mathcalP = mathcalD star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)
implies P(z) = D(z) e^z implies D(z) = frace^-z1-z
$$
which is the same as Brian M. Scott's second approach and vonbrand's answer.
add a comment |Â
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
16
down vote
accepted
HereâÂÂs one way. Start with the recurrence $d_n+1=nd_n+nd_n-1$, where $d_n$ is the number of derangements of $[n]=1,dots,n$. Multiply by $fracx^nn!$ and sum over $nge 0$:
$$sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!+sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;.tag1$$
(Here I make the assumption that $d_-1=0$: this is consistent with the recurrence, so it causes no problems.) Let $$D(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^nn!$$ be the exponential generating function in question. Then $$D,'(x)=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 1d_nfracx^n-1(n-1)!=sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!;,tag2$$
$$xD,'(x)=xsum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!;,tag3$$
and $$xD(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^n+1n!=sum_nge 0(n+1)d_nfracx^n+1(n+1)!=sum_nge 1nd_n-1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;,tag4$$ since by convention $d_-1=0$.
Compare $(2),(3)$, and $(4)$ with $(1)$, and youâÂÂll see that
$$D,'(x)=xD,'(x)+xD(x);,$$ or $$(1-x)D,'(x)=xD(x);.$$ This is a separable differential equation,
$$fracD,'(x)D(x)=fracx1-x=-1+frac11-x;,$$
which you can now solve for $D(x)$ by first-year calculus.
HereâÂÂs another way, quicker but sneakier. For any particular set $K$ of $k$ elements of $[n]$ there are $d_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ that have $K$ as their set of fixed points. There are $binomnk$ such subsets $K$, so there are $binomnkd_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ with exactly $k$ fixed points. Since there are $n!$ permutations of $[n]$ altogether, $$sum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k=n!;.tag5$$ The lefthand side of $(5)$ is the $n$-th term of the binomial convolution of the sequences $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$, so the exponential generating function (egf) of the sequence
$$leftlanglesum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k:ninBbb Nrightrangle=langle n!:ninBbb Nrangle$$
is the product of the egfs of $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$. Clearly $$sum_nge 0n!fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0x^n=frac11-x$$ and $$sum_nge 01cdotfracx^nn!=e^x;,$$ so $$e^xD(x)=frac11-x;,$$ and $$D(x)=frace^-x1-x;.$$
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
1
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
1
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
1
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
 |Â
show 11 more comments
up vote
16
down vote
accepted
HereâÂÂs one way. Start with the recurrence $d_n+1=nd_n+nd_n-1$, where $d_n$ is the number of derangements of $[n]=1,dots,n$. Multiply by $fracx^nn!$ and sum over $nge 0$:
$$sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!+sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;.tag1$$
(Here I make the assumption that $d_-1=0$: this is consistent with the recurrence, so it causes no problems.) Let $$D(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^nn!$$ be the exponential generating function in question. Then $$D,'(x)=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 1d_nfracx^n-1(n-1)!=sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!;,tag2$$
$$xD,'(x)=xsum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!;,tag3$$
and $$xD(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^n+1n!=sum_nge 0(n+1)d_nfracx^n+1(n+1)!=sum_nge 1nd_n-1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;,tag4$$ since by convention $d_-1=0$.
Compare $(2),(3)$, and $(4)$ with $(1)$, and youâÂÂll see that
$$D,'(x)=xD,'(x)+xD(x);,$$ or $$(1-x)D,'(x)=xD(x);.$$ This is a separable differential equation,
$$fracD,'(x)D(x)=fracx1-x=-1+frac11-x;,$$
which you can now solve for $D(x)$ by first-year calculus.
HereâÂÂs another way, quicker but sneakier. For any particular set $K$ of $k$ elements of $[n]$ there are $d_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ that have $K$ as their set of fixed points. There are $binomnk$ such subsets $K$, so there are $binomnkd_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ with exactly $k$ fixed points. Since there are $n!$ permutations of $[n]$ altogether, $$sum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k=n!;.tag5$$ The lefthand side of $(5)$ is the $n$-th term of the binomial convolution of the sequences $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$, so the exponential generating function (egf) of the sequence
$$leftlanglesum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k:ninBbb Nrightrangle=langle n!:ninBbb Nrangle$$
is the product of the egfs of $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$. Clearly $$sum_nge 0n!fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0x^n=frac11-x$$ and $$sum_nge 01cdotfracx^nn!=e^x;,$$ so $$e^xD(x)=frac11-x;,$$ and $$D(x)=frace^-x1-x;.$$
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
1
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
1
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
1
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
 |Â
show 11 more comments
up vote
16
down vote
accepted
up vote
16
down vote
accepted
HereâÂÂs one way. Start with the recurrence $d_n+1=nd_n+nd_n-1$, where $d_n$ is the number of derangements of $[n]=1,dots,n$. Multiply by $fracx^nn!$ and sum over $nge 0$:
$$sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!+sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;.tag1$$
(Here I make the assumption that $d_-1=0$: this is consistent with the recurrence, so it causes no problems.) Let $$D(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^nn!$$ be the exponential generating function in question. Then $$D,'(x)=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 1d_nfracx^n-1(n-1)!=sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!;,tag2$$
$$xD,'(x)=xsum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!;,tag3$$
and $$xD(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^n+1n!=sum_nge 0(n+1)d_nfracx^n+1(n+1)!=sum_nge 1nd_n-1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;,tag4$$ since by convention $d_-1=0$.
Compare $(2),(3)$, and $(4)$ with $(1)$, and youâÂÂll see that
$$D,'(x)=xD,'(x)+xD(x);,$$ or $$(1-x)D,'(x)=xD(x);.$$ This is a separable differential equation,
$$fracD,'(x)D(x)=fracx1-x=-1+frac11-x;,$$
which you can now solve for $D(x)$ by first-year calculus.
HereâÂÂs another way, quicker but sneakier. For any particular set $K$ of $k$ elements of $[n]$ there are $d_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ that have $K$ as their set of fixed points. There are $binomnk$ such subsets $K$, so there are $binomnkd_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ with exactly $k$ fixed points. Since there are $n!$ permutations of $[n]$ altogether, $$sum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k=n!;.tag5$$ The lefthand side of $(5)$ is the $n$-th term of the binomial convolution of the sequences $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$, so the exponential generating function (egf) of the sequence
$$leftlanglesum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k:ninBbb Nrightrangle=langle n!:ninBbb Nrangle$$
is the product of the egfs of $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$. Clearly $$sum_nge 0n!fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0x^n=frac11-x$$ and $$sum_nge 01cdotfracx^nn!=e^x;,$$ so $$e^xD(x)=frac11-x;,$$ and $$D(x)=frace^-x1-x;.$$
HereâÂÂs one way. Start with the recurrence $d_n+1=nd_n+nd_n-1$, where $d_n$ is the number of derangements of $[n]=1,dots,n$. Multiply by $fracx^nn!$ and sum over $nge 0$:
$$sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!+sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;.tag1$$
(Here I make the assumption that $d_-1=0$: this is consistent with the recurrence, so it causes no problems.) Let $$D(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^nn!$$ be the exponential generating function in question. Then $$D,'(x)=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 1d_nfracx^n-1(n-1)!=sum_nge 0d_n+1fracx^nn!;,tag2$$
$$xD,'(x)=xsum_nge 0nd_nfracx^n-1n!=sum_nge 0nd_nfracx^nn!;,tag3$$
and $$xD(x)=sum_nge 0d_nfracx^n+1n!=sum_nge 0(n+1)d_nfracx^n+1(n+1)!=sum_nge 1nd_n-1fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0nd_n-1fracx^nn!;,tag4$$ since by convention $d_-1=0$.
Compare $(2),(3)$, and $(4)$ with $(1)$, and youâÂÂll see that
$$D,'(x)=xD,'(x)+xD(x);,$$ or $$(1-x)D,'(x)=xD(x);.$$ This is a separable differential equation,
$$fracD,'(x)D(x)=fracx1-x=-1+frac11-x;,$$
which you can now solve for $D(x)$ by first-year calculus.
HereâÂÂs another way, quicker but sneakier. For any particular set $K$ of $k$ elements of $[n]$ there are $d_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ that have $K$ as their set of fixed points. There are $binomnk$ such subsets $K$, so there are $binomnkd_n-k$ permutations of $[n]$ with exactly $k$ fixed points. Since there are $n!$ permutations of $[n]$ altogether, $$sum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k=n!;.tag5$$ The lefthand side of $(5)$ is the $n$-th term of the binomial convolution of the sequences $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$, so the exponential generating function (egf) of the sequence
$$leftlanglesum_k=0^nbinomnkd_n-k:ninBbb Nrightrangle=langle n!:ninBbb Nrangle$$
is the product of the egfs of $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$ and $langle d_n:ninBbb Nrangle$. Clearly $$sum_nge 0n!fracx^nn!=sum_nge 0x^n=frac11-x$$ and $$sum_nge 01cdotfracx^nn!=e^x;,$$ so $$e^xD(x)=frac11-x;,$$ and $$D(x)=frace^-x1-x;.$$
edited Mar 15 '16 at 7:21
answered Nov 19 '12 at 4:33
Brian M. Scott
448k39492880
448k39492880
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
1
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
1
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
1
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
 |Â
show 11 more comments
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
1
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
1
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
1
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
Wow, quite interesting. To be honest, I feel more comfortable with the steps outlined in the first proof than I do in the second, even though I don't think I would of came to the realization of starting it off the way you did. As for the second one, I feel like it has more of a combinatorial nature, even though I don't quite understand all of the steps. I've never heard of the binomial convolution formula before and I am not quite familiar with equation (5) and the product of the EGFs described after.
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:53
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
However, the second proof does seem to reflect what we're doing in class, given that we're talking about classes of structures, which is the motivation we're using in order to discuss EGFs :)
â Nizbel99
Nov 19 '12 at 6:54
1
1
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
@user43552: I thought that the first one was a bit more straightforward. You might want to download Herbert WilfâÂÂs generatingfunctionology, freely available here; itâÂÂs not the easiest book, but I actually lifed that second derivation from it.
â Brian M. Scott
Nov 19 '12 at 6:58
1
1
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
@AlJebr: It neednâÂÂt: the original constant term has derivative $0$, so it makes no difference whether one includes it or not. I thought that it might be clearer to leave that term in the sum at first, simply replacing the general term by its derivative, and then point out at the next step that in fact we can start the indexing at $1$ without losing anything.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:31
1
1
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
@AlJebr: If there is more than one way to express something, you use whatever expression is most useful for your purposes. This is every bit as true for power series as for anything else. I get the feeling that youâÂÂre trying to bypass thinking about whatâÂÂs actually happening in the computation in favor of applying a mechanical rule; thatâÂÂs not a good idea, at least not until youâÂÂve become so familiar with such calculations that they are mechanical for you.
â Brian M. Scott
Mar 15 '16 at 7:40
 |Â
show 11 more comments
up vote
10
down vote
Another way: There are $n!$ permutations in all. A permutation with $k$ fixed points shuffles the other $n - k$ elements around without fixed points, the $k$ fixed points can be selected in $binomnk$ ways. So:
$$
n! = sum_0 le k le n binomnk d_n -k
$$
This is a binomial convolution, using Mike Spivey's notation that gives:
$$
beginalign*
frac11 - x &= G_D(x) e^x \
G_D(x) &= frace^-x1 - x
endalign*
$$
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
Another way: There are $n!$ permutations in all. A permutation with $k$ fixed points shuffles the other $n - k$ elements around without fixed points, the $k$ fixed points can be selected in $binomnk$ ways. So:
$$
n! = sum_0 le k le n binomnk d_n -k
$$
This is a binomial convolution, using Mike Spivey's notation that gives:
$$
beginalign*
frac11 - x &= G_D(x) e^x \
G_D(x) &= frace^-x1 - x
endalign*
$$
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
up vote
10
down vote
Another way: There are $n!$ permutations in all. A permutation with $k$ fixed points shuffles the other $n - k$ elements around without fixed points, the $k$ fixed points can be selected in $binomnk$ ways. So:
$$
n! = sum_0 le k le n binomnk d_n -k
$$
This is a binomial convolution, using Mike Spivey's notation that gives:
$$
beginalign*
frac11 - x &= G_D(x) e^x \
G_D(x) &= frace^-x1 - x
endalign*
$$
Another way: There are $n!$ permutations in all. A permutation with $k$ fixed points shuffles the other $n - k$ elements around without fixed points, the $k$ fixed points can be selected in $binomnk$ ways. So:
$$
n! = sum_0 le k le n binomnk d_n -k
$$
This is a binomial convolution, using Mike Spivey's notation that gives:
$$
beginalign*
frac11 - x &= G_D(x) e^x \
G_D(x) &= frace^-x1 - x
endalign*
$$
edited May 23 '13 at 10:53
answered May 21 '13 at 18:08
vonbrand
19.6k62957
19.6k62957
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
add a comment |Â
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
+1, but actually this is the same as Brian's second way.
â ShreevatsaR
Jan 20 '14 at 5:50
add a comment |Â
up vote
10
down vote
There's a shorter way even than the two in Brian's nice answer. Starting from the recurrence $D_n = n D_n-1 + (-1)^n$, multiply by $x^n/n!$ and sum over $n geq 1$ to get
beginalign
&sum_n geq 1 D_n fracx^nn! = sum_n geq 1 n D_n-1 fracx^nn! + sum_n geq 1 (-1)^n fracx^nn! \
implies & G_D(x) - 1 = x sum_n geq 1 D_n-1 fracx^n-1(n-1)! + e^-x - 1, text as $D_0 = 1$ \
implies & G_D(x) = x G_D(x) + e^-x,
endalign
which tells you that the exponential generating function is $$G_D(x) = frace^-x1-x.$$
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
10
down vote
There's a shorter way even than the two in Brian's nice answer. Starting from the recurrence $D_n = n D_n-1 + (-1)^n$, multiply by $x^n/n!$ and sum over $n geq 1$ to get
beginalign
&sum_n geq 1 D_n fracx^nn! = sum_n geq 1 n D_n-1 fracx^nn! + sum_n geq 1 (-1)^n fracx^nn! \
implies & G_D(x) - 1 = x sum_n geq 1 D_n-1 fracx^n-1(n-1)! + e^-x - 1, text as $D_0 = 1$ \
implies & G_D(x) = x G_D(x) + e^-x,
endalign
which tells you that the exponential generating function is $$G_D(x) = frace^-x1-x.$$
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
10
down vote
up vote
10
down vote
There's a shorter way even than the two in Brian's nice answer. Starting from the recurrence $D_n = n D_n-1 + (-1)^n$, multiply by $x^n/n!$ and sum over $n geq 1$ to get
beginalign
&sum_n geq 1 D_n fracx^nn! = sum_n geq 1 n D_n-1 fracx^nn! + sum_n geq 1 (-1)^n fracx^nn! \
implies & G_D(x) - 1 = x sum_n geq 1 D_n-1 fracx^n-1(n-1)! + e^-x - 1, text as $D_0 = 1$ \
implies & G_D(x) = x G_D(x) + e^-x,
endalign
which tells you that the exponential generating function is $$G_D(x) = frace^-x1-x.$$
There's a shorter way even than the two in Brian's nice answer. Starting from the recurrence $D_n = n D_n-1 + (-1)^n$, multiply by $x^n/n!$ and sum over $n geq 1$ to get
beginalign
&sum_n geq 1 D_n fracx^nn! = sum_n geq 1 n D_n-1 fracx^nn! + sum_n geq 1 (-1)^n fracx^nn! \
implies & G_D(x) - 1 = x sum_n geq 1 D_n-1 fracx^n-1(n-1)! + e^-x - 1, text as $D_0 = 1$ \
implies & G_D(x) = x G_D(x) + e^-x,
endalign
which tells you that the exponential generating function is $$G_D(x) = frace^-x1-x.$$
edited Sep 18 '15 at 23:14
answered Feb 13 '13 at 22:45
Mike Spivey
41.4k8135225
41.4k8135225
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
 |Â
show 1 more comment
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
You first have to show that the two recurrences are equivalent.
â marty cohen
May 21 '13 at 19:56
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
@martycohen: Well, that depends on what you already know about the derangement numbers. But it is easy to get from the recurrence Brian uses to the one I use. See, for example, this blog post.
â Mike Spivey
May 23 '13 at 3:10
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just came across this question and noted that using $(9)$ from this answer, we simply need to multiply by $x^n$ and sum for $nge1$ to get $f(x)-1-xf(x)=e^-x-1$ which immediately gives $f(x)=frace^-x1-x$. This is essentially what you have here (+1)
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:46
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
I just noticed that you are summing for $nge0$. What do you use for $D_-1$? Of course, it is being multiplied by $frac00!$, so perhaps we don't need to worry too much, but somehow, it still bothers me.
â robjohnâ¦
Sep 18 '15 at 22:48
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
@robjohn: Better? :)
â Mike Spivey
Sep 18 '15 at 23:15
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
8
down vote
Yet another couple of ways.
Method 1.
$$mathcalD = operatornameSscriptsize ET(operatornameCscriptsize YC_> 1) implies D(z) = expleft(ln frac11-z - zright) = frace^-z1-z.$$
Explanation: A derangement, a permutation with no fixed points, is a set of cycles each containing more than one element. The EGF for such cycles can be got by either taking the known EGF for all cycles, namely $C(z) = lnfrac11-z$, and subtracting the term "$z$" that corresponds to the unique cycle of length $1$, or, if you don't know $C(z)$, with explicit counting as
$$C_>1(z) = sum_n ge 2 (n-1)! fracz^nn! = sum_nge 2fracz^nn = ln frac11-z - z$$
And as derangements are sets of such cycles, their EGF is the exponential of the EGF of such cycles. (This setâÂÂexp-of-EGFs fact is also known as the exponential formula.)
Note that the above aproach also easily gives the generating function for the number of permutations with all cycles of length greater than $r$ for any $r$ (derangements is the $r=1$ case): it's
$$D_r(z) = expleft(sum_n > r fracz^rrright) = frace^-z-z^2/2 - dots - z^r/r1-z.$$
Of course, the $r=0$ case simply gives the EGF of all permutations, $explnfrac11-z = frac11-z$, as expected.
Method 2.
This is a generating-functions analogue of the inclusion-exclusion principle. Though it is overkill for this problem, here it is as an illustration.
Let $mathcalP$ be the class of all permutations, and let $mathcalQ$ be the class of all permutations with some subset of their fixed-points (possibly none, possibly all) specially distinguished. Viewing it differently, any member of $mathcalQ$ is got by taking an arbitrary permutation and inserting a set of fixed points in it: $mathcalQ = mathcalP star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)$. Using the variable $z$ to mark size and the variable $v$ to mark the distinguished fixed points, we get the (bivariate) EGF $Q(z,v) = frac11-ze^zv$.
Now if $P(z, u)$ is the EGF for permutations where $z$ marks size and $u$ marks the fixed points, the act of "distinguishing" some of the fixed points corresponds to the substitution $1 + v$ for $u$ in the EGF for permutations: every fixed point (marked by $u$) is either distinguished (marked by $v$) or not (unmarked). So we have $Q(z, v) = P(z, 1 + v)$ or equivalently $P(z, u) = Q(z, u - 1) = dfrace^z(u-1)1-z$. The EGF of derangements is got by setting $u = 0$ in the above:
$$D(z) = P(z, 0) = frace^-z1-z$$
This approach also gives the EGF number of permutations with exactly $k$ fixed points, as the coefficient of $u^k$ in the above: it's $dfracz^kk!dfrace^-z1-z$.
References: Both the above are from the book Analytic Combinatorics by Flajolet and Sedgewick, pp. 122âÂÂ123 and 207âÂÂ208 respectively.
Of course, a simpler observation is that any permutation is a derangement along with a set of fixed points added, so
$$mathcalP = mathcalD star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)
implies P(z) = D(z) e^z implies D(z) = frace^-z1-z
$$
which is the same as Brian M. Scott's second approach and vonbrand's answer.
add a comment |Â
up vote
8
down vote
Yet another couple of ways.
Method 1.
$$mathcalD = operatornameSscriptsize ET(operatornameCscriptsize YC_> 1) implies D(z) = expleft(ln frac11-z - zright) = frace^-z1-z.$$
Explanation: A derangement, a permutation with no fixed points, is a set of cycles each containing more than one element. The EGF for such cycles can be got by either taking the known EGF for all cycles, namely $C(z) = lnfrac11-z$, and subtracting the term "$z$" that corresponds to the unique cycle of length $1$, or, if you don't know $C(z)$, with explicit counting as
$$C_>1(z) = sum_n ge 2 (n-1)! fracz^nn! = sum_nge 2fracz^nn = ln frac11-z - z$$
And as derangements are sets of such cycles, their EGF is the exponential of the EGF of such cycles. (This setâÂÂexp-of-EGFs fact is also known as the exponential formula.)
Note that the above aproach also easily gives the generating function for the number of permutations with all cycles of length greater than $r$ for any $r$ (derangements is the $r=1$ case): it's
$$D_r(z) = expleft(sum_n > r fracz^rrright) = frace^-z-z^2/2 - dots - z^r/r1-z.$$
Of course, the $r=0$ case simply gives the EGF of all permutations, $explnfrac11-z = frac11-z$, as expected.
Method 2.
This is a generating-functions analogue of the inclusion-exclusion principle. Though it is overkill for this problem, here it is as an illustration.
Let $mathcalP$ be the class of all permutations, and let $mathcalQ$ be the class of all permutations with some subset of their fixed-points (possibly none, possibly all) specially distinguished. Viewing it differently, any member of $mathcalQ$ is got by taking an arbitrary permutation and inserting a set of fixed points in it: $mathcalQ = mathcalP star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)$. Using the variable $z$ to mark size and the variable $v$ to mark the distinguished fixed points, we get the (bivariate) EGF $Q(z,v) = frac11-ze^zv$.
Now if $P(z, u)$ is the EGF for permutations where $z$ marks size and $u$ marks the fixed points, the act of "distinguishing" some of the fixed points corresponds to the substitution $1 + v$ for $u$ in the EGF for permutations: every fixed point (marked by $u$) is either distinguished (marked by $v$) or not (unmarked). So we have $Q(z, v) = P(z, 1 + v)$ or equivalently $P(z, u) = Q(z, u - 1) = dfrace^z(u-1)1-z$. The EGF of derangements is got by setting $u = 0$ in the above:
$$D(z) = P(z, 0) = frace^-z1-z$$
This approach also gives the EGF number of permutations with exactly $k$ fixed points, as the coefficient of $u^k$ in the above: it's $dfracz^kk!dfrace^-z1-z$.
References: Both the above are from the book Analytic Combinatorics by Flajolet and Sedgewick, pp. 122âÂÂ123 and 207âÂÂ208 respectively.
Of course, a simpler observation is that any permutation is a derangement along with a set of fixed points added, so
$$mathcalP = mathcalD star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)
implies P(z) = D(z) e^z implies D(z) = frace^-z1-z
$$
which is the same as Brian M. Scott's second approach and vonbrand's answer.
add a comment |Â
up vote
8
down vote
up vote
8
down vote
Yet another couple of ways.
Method 1.
$$mathcalD = operatornameSscriptsize ET(operatornameCscriptsize YC_> 1) implies D(z) = expleft(ln frac11-z - zright) = frace^-z1-z.$$
Explanation: A derangement, a permutation with no fixed points, is a set of cycles each containing more than one element. The EGF for such cycles can be got by either taking the known EGF for all cycles, namely $C(z) = lnfrac11-z$, and subtracting the term "$z$" that corresponds to the unique cycle of length $1$, or, if you don't know $C(z)$, with explicit counting as
$$C_>1(z) = sum_n ge 2 (n-1)! fracz^nn! = sum_nge 2fracz^nn = ln frac11-z - z$$
And as derangements are sets of such cycles, their EGF is the exponential of the EGF of such cycles. (This setâÂÂexp-of-EGFs fact is also known as the exponential formula.)
Note that the above aproach also easily gives the generating function for the number of permutations with all cycles of length greater than $r$ for any $r$ (derangements is the $r=1$ case): it's
$$D_r(z) = expleft(sum_n > r fracz^rrright) = frace^-z-z^2/2 - dots - z^r/r1-z.$$
Of course, the $r=0$ case simply gives the EGF of all permutations, $explnfrac11-z = frac11-z$, as expected.
Method 2.
This is a generating-functions analogue of the inclusion-exclusion principle. Though it is overkill for this problem, here it is as an illustration.
Let $mathcalP$ be the class of all permutations, and let $mathcalQ$ be the class of all permutations with some subset of their fixed-points (possibly none, possibly all) specially distinguished. Viewing it differently, any member of $mathcalQ$ is got by taking an arbitrary permutation and inserting a set of fixed points in it: $mathcalQ = mathcalP star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)$. Using the variable $z$ to mark size and the variable $v$ to mark the distinguished fixed points, we get the (bivariate) EGF $Q(z,v) = frac11-ze^zv$.
Now if $P(z, u)$ is the EGF for permutations where $z$ marks size and $u$ marks the fixed points, the act of "distinguishing" some of the fixed points corresponds to the substitution $1 + v$ for $u$ in the EGF for permutations: every fixed point (marked by $u$) is either distinguished (marked by $v$) or not (unmarked). So we have $Q(z, v) = P(z, 1 + v)$ or equivalently $P(z, u) = Q(z, u - 1) = dfrace^z(u-1)1-z$. The EGF of derangements is got by setting $u = 0$ in the above:
$$D(z) = P(z, 0) = frace^-z1-z$$
This approach also gives the EGF number of permutations with exactly $k$ fixed points, as the coefficient of $u^k$ in the above: it's $dfracz^kk!dfrace^-z1-z$.
References: Both the above are from the book Analytic Combinatorics by Flajolet and Sedgewick, pp. 122âÂÂ123 and 207âÂÂ208 respectively.
Of course, a simpler observation is that any permutation is a derangement along with a set of fixed points added, so
$$mathcalP = mathcalD star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)
implies P(z) = D(z) e^z implies D(z) = frace^-z1-z
$$
which is the same as Brian M. Scott's second approach and vonbrand's answer.
Yet another couple of ways.
Method 1.
$$mathcalD = operatornameSscriptsize ET(operatornameCscriptsize YC_> 1) implies D(z) = expleft(ln frac11-z - zright) = frace^-z1-z.$$
Explanation: A derangement, a permutation with no fixed points, is a set of cycles each containing more than one element. The EGF for such cycles can be got by either taking the known EGF for all cycles, namely $C(z) = lnfrac11-z$, and subtracting the term "$z$" that corresponds to the unique cycle of length $1$, or, if you don't know $C(z)$, with explicit counting as
$$C_>1(z) = sum_n ge 2 (n-1)! fracz^nn! = sum_nge 2fracz^nn = ln frac11-z - z$$
And as derangements are sets of such cycles, their EGF is the exponential of the EGF of such cycles. (This setâÂÂexp-of-EGFs fact is also known as the exponential formula.)
Note that the above aproach also easily gives the generating function for the number of permutations with all cycles of length greater than $r$ for any $r$ (derangements is the $r=1$ case): it's
$$D_r(z) = expleft(sum_n > r fracz^rrright) = frace^-z-z^2/2 - dots - z^r/r1-z.$$
Of course, the $r=0$ case simply gives the EGF of all permutations, $explnfrac11-z = frac11-z$, as expected.
Method 2.
This is a generating-functions analogue of the inclusion-exclusion principle. Though it is overkill for this problem, here it is as an illustration.
Let $mathcalP$ be the class of all permutations, and let $mathcalQ$ be the class of all permutations with some subset of their fixed-points (possibly none, possibly all) specially distinguished. Viewing it differently, any member of $mathcalQ$ is got by taking an arbitrary permutation and inserting a set of fixed points in it: $mathcalQ = mathcalP star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)$. Using the variable $z$ to mark size and the variable $v$ to mark the distinguished fixed points, we get the (bivariate) EGF $Q(z,v) = frac11-ze^zv$.
Now if $P(z, u)$ is the EGF for permutations where $z$ marks size and $u$ marks the fixed points, the act of "distinguishing" some of the fixed points corresponds to the substitution $1 + v$ for $u$ in the EGF for permutations: every fixed point (marked by $u$) is either distinguished (marked by $v$) or not (unmarked). So we have $Q(z, v) = P(z, 1 + v)$ or equivalently $P(z, u) = Q(z, u - 1) = dfrace^z(u-1)1-z$. The EGF of derangements is got by setting $u = 0$ in the above:
$$D(z) = P(z, 0) = frace^-z1-z$$
This approach also gives the EGF number of permutations with exactly $k$ fixed points, as the coefficient of $u^k$ in the above: it's $dfracz^kk!dfrace^-z1-z$.
References: Both the above are from the book Analytic Combinatorics by Flajolet and Sedgewick, pp. 122âÂÂ123 and 207âÂÂ208 respectively.
Of course, a simpler observation is that any permutation is a derangement along with a set of fixed points added, so
$$mathcalP = mathcalD star operatornameSscriptsize ET(mathcalZ)
implies P(z) = D(z) e^z implies D(z) = frace^-z1-z
$$
which is the same as Brian M. Scott's second approach and vonbrand's answer.
answered Jan 20 '14 at 5:48
ShreevatsaR
33.8k566101
33.8k566101
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f240357%2fexponential-generating-function-for-derangements%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password