There is a sequence $(P_n)$ of polynomials such that $P_n(cos x) to f(x)$ uniformly over $[0,pi]$.

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Show that for any function continuous $f:[0,pi] to mathbbR$, there is a sequence $(P_n)$ of polynomials such that
$$P_n(cos x) to f(x);textuniformly over;[0,pi].$$




The Weierstrass Theorem says that there is a sequence of polynomials $p_n$ such that $p_n to f$ uniformly. We cannot have $p_n = P_n$ if no, $P_n(cos x) to f(cos x)$, right?



I know that also, there is a sequence $q_n$ such that $q_n to cos$ uniformly. I'm trying to somehow use these two sequences $p_n,q_n$, but I'm stuck. I don't want the solution to the exercise, but I would like a hint.







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    down vote

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    Show that for any function continuous $f:[0,pi] to mathbbR$, there is a sequence $(P_n)$ of polynomials such that
    $$P_n(cos x) to f(x);textuniformly over;[0,pi].$$




    The Weierstrass Theorem says that there is a sequence of polynomials $p_n$ such that $p_n to f$ uniformly. We cannot have $p_n = P_n$ if no, $P_n(cos x) to f(cos x)$, right?



    I know that also, there is a sequence $q_n$ such that $q_n to cos$ uniformly. I'm trying to somehow use these two sequences $p_n,q_n$, but I'm stuck. I don't want the solution to the exercise, but I would like a hint.







    share|cite|improve this question






















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      Show that for any function continuous $f:[0,pi] to mathbbR$, there is a sequence $(P_n)$ of polynomials such that
      $$P_n(cos x) to f(x);textuniformly over;[0,pi].$$




      The Weierstrass Theorem says that there is a sequence of polynomials $p_n$ such that $p_n to f$ uniformly. We cannot have $p_n = P_n$ if no, $P_n(cos x) to f(cos x)$, right?



      I know that also, there is a sequence $q_n$ such that $q_n to cos$ uniformly. I'm trying to somehow use these two sequences $p_n,q_n$, but I'm stuck. I don't want the solution to the exercise, but I would like a hint.







      share|cite|improve this question













      Show that for any function continuous $f:[0,pi] to mathbbR$, there is a sequence $(P_n)$ of polynomials such that
      $$P_n(cos x) to f(x);textuniformly over;[0,pi].$$




      The Weierstrass Theorem says that there is a sequence of polynomials $p_n$ such that $p_n to f$ uniformly. We cannot have $p_n = P_n$ if no, $P_n(cos x) to f(cos x)$, right?



      I know that also, there is a sequence $q_n$ such that $q_n to cos$ uniformly. I'm trying to somehow use these two sequences $p_n,q_n$, but I'm stuck. I don't want the solution to the exercise, but I would like a hint.









      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Aug 14 at 9:08









      Lucas Corrêa

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          $fcirc cos^-1$ is a continuous function on $[-1,1]$. Approximate this by polynomials. $p_n$ and that will do the trick.






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            1 Answer
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            active

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            $fcirc cos^-1$ is a continuous function on $[-1,1]$. Approximate this by polynomials. $p_n$ and that will do the trick.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted










              $fcirc cos^-1$ is a continuous function on $[-1,1]$. Approximate this by polynomials. $p_n$ and that will do the trick.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                4
                down vote



                accepted






                $fcirc cos^-1$ is a continuous function on $[-1,1]$. Approximate this by polynomials. $p_n$ and that will do the trick.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                $fcirc cos^-1$ is a continuous function on $[-1,1]$. Approximate this by polynomials. $p_n$ and that will do the trick.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Aug 14 at 9:11









                Kavi Rama Murthy

                22.2k2933




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