Dirac delta from poles of a function

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Suppose we are given the simple expression



$$
F(k) = frac1E^2-E(k)^2
$$



which has a pole when $E^2 = E(k)^2$ and where $E, E(k)$ are real numbers. When working with this expression (e.g. inside an integral) we can add some infinitesimal constant $epsilon >0$ to take care of the poles and let this $epsilon$ go to zero in the end.



What I want to show now is that the imaginary part of the square of $F$ is proportional to a delta function $deltaleft( E^2 - E(k)^2 right)$. What I tried was simply to calculate



$$
F^2 = lim_epsilonto 0frac1(E^2+E(k)^2+i epsilon)^2 =
lim_etato 0 frac1(E^2-E(k)^2)^2 + ieta(E^2-E(k)^2)
$$



where $eta = 2epsilon$ and where I have set $epsilon^2 = 0$. My idea was to use the representation of the delta function



$$
pidelta(x) = lim_eta to 0 fracetaeta^2+x^2
$$



but I failed to bring $F^2$ to this form. Is there any way to do this anyway? For example by introducing an infinitesimal parameter somewhere else in the fraction? Or maybe by doing something completely different?







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  • I would like to know if there is any particular for which you need to consider the square of $F$. As a matter of fact, $F$ itself can be analytically continued as the (Fantappié) indicatrix of the distribution $deltabig(E-E(k)big)$: this seems to rule out the possibility to do the same thing for its square $F^2$.
    – Daniele Tampieri
    Aug 14 at 17:55















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2












Suppose we are given the simple expression



$$
F(k) = frac1E^2-E(k)^2
$$



which has a pole when $E^2 = E(k)^2$ and where $E, E(k)$ are real numbers. When working with this expression (e.g. inside an integral) we can add some infinitesimal constant $epsilon >0$ to take care of the poles and let this $epsilon$ go to zero in the end.



What I want to show now is that the imaginary part of the square of $F$ is proportional to a delta function $deltaleft( E^2 - E(k)^2 right)$. What I tried was simply to calculate



$$
F^2 = lim_epsilonto 0frac1(E^2+E(k)^2+i epsilon)^2 =
lim_etato 0 frac1(E^2-E(k)^2)^2 + ieta(E^2-E(k)^2)
$$



where $eta = 2epsilon$ and where I have set $epsilon^2 = 0$. My idea was to use the representation of the delta function



$$
pidelta(x) = lim_eta to 0 fracetaeta^2+x^2
$$



but I failed to bring $F^2$ to this form. Is there any way to do this anyway? For example by introducing an infinitesimal parameter somewhere else in the fraction? Or maybe by doing something completely different?







share|cite|improve this question




















  • I would like to know if there is any particular for which you need to consider the square of $F$. As a matter of fact, $F$ itself can be analytically continued as the (Fantappié) indicatrix of the distribution $deltabig(E-E(k)big)$: this seems to rule out the possibility to do the same thing for its square $F^2$.
    – Daniele Tampieri
    Aug 14 at 17:55













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
2






2





Suppose we are given the simple expression



$$
F(k) = frac1E^2-E(k)^2
$$



which has a pole when $E^2 = E(k)^2$ and where $E, E(k)$ are real numbers. When working with this expression (e.g. inside an integral) we can add some infinitesimal constant $epsilon >0$ to take care of the poles and let this $epsilon$ go to zero in the end.



What I want to show now is that the imaginary part of the square of $F$ is proportional to a delta function $deltaleft( E^2 - E(k)^2 right)$. What I tried was simply to calculate



$$
F^2 = lim_epsilonto 0frac1(E^2+E(k)^2+i epsilon)^2 =
lim_etato 0 frac1(E^2-E(k)^2)^2 + ieta(E^2-E(k)^2)
$$



where $eta = 2epsilon$ and where I have set $epsilon^2 = 0$. My idea was to use the representation of the delta function



$$
pidelta(x) = lim_eta to 0 fracetaeta^2+x^2
$$



but I failed to bring $F^2$ to this form. Is there any way to do this anyway? For example by introducing an infinitesimal parameter somewhere else in the fraction? Or maybe by doing something completely different?







share|cite|improve this question












Suppose we are given the simple expression



$$
F(k) = frac1E^2-E(k)^2
$$



which has a pole when $E^2 = E(k)^2$ and where $E, E(k)$ are real numbers. When working with this expression (e.g. inside an integral) we can add some infinitesimal constant $epsilon >0$ to take care of the poles and let this $epsilon$ go to zero in the end.



What I want to show now is that the imaginary part of the square of $F$ is proportional to a delta function $deltaleft( E^2 - E(k)^2 right)$. What I tried was simply to calculate



$$
F^2 = lim_epsilonto 0frac1(E^2+E(k)^2+i epsilon)^2 =
lim_etato 0 frac1(E^2-E(k)^2)^2 + ieta(E^2-E(k)^2)
$$



where $eta = 2epsilon$ and where I have set $epsilon^2 = 0$. My idea was to use the representation of the delta function



$$
pidelta(x) = lim_eta to 0 fracetaeta^2+x^2
$$



but I failed to bring $F^2$ to this form. Is there any way to do this anyway? For example by introducing an infinitesimal parameter somewhere else in the fraction? Or maybe by doing something completely different?









share|cite|improve this question











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asked Aug 14 at 8:55









MeMeansMe

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  • I would like to know if there is any particular for which you need to consider the square of $F$. As a matter of fact, $F$ itself can be analytically continued as the (Fantappié) indicatrix of the distribution $deltabig(E-E(k)big)$: this seems to rule out the possibility to do the same thing for its square $F^2$.
    – Daniele Tampieri
    Aug 14 at 17:55

















  • I would like to know if there is any particular for which you need to consider the square of $F$. As a matter of fact, $F$ itself can be analytically continued as the (Fantappié) indicatrix of the distribution $deltabig(E-E(k)big)$: this seems to rule out the possibility to do the same thing for its square $F^2$.
    – Daniele Tampieri
    Aug 14 at 17:55
















I would like to know if there is any particular for which you need to consider the square of $F$. As a matter of fact, $F$ itself can be analytically continued as the (Fantappié) indicatrix of the distribution $deltabig(E-E(k)big)$: this seems to rule out the possibility to do the same thing for its square $F^2$.
– Daniele Tampieri
Aug 14 at 17:55





I would like to know if there is any particular for which you need to consider the square of $F$. As a matter of fact, $F$ itself can be analytically continued as the (Fantappié) indicatrix of the distribution $deltabig(E-E(k)big)$: this seems to rule out the possibility to do the same thing for its square $F^2$.
– Daniele Tampieri
Aug 14 at 17:55
















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