Does Pi contain all possible number combinations?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











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552
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I came across the following image:



PI



Which states:




$pi$ Pi



Pi is an infinite, nonrepeating $($sic$)$ decimal - meaning that
every possible number combination exists somewhere in pi. Converted
into ASCII text, somewhere in that infinite string if digits is the
name of every person you will ever love, the date, time and manner of
your death, and the answers to all the great questions of the
universe.




Is this true? Does it make absolutely any sense ?







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  • 61




    This is unknown. All that is known about $pi$ is that it is transcendental. askamathematician.com/2009/11/…
    – picakhu
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:38







  • 15




    This is the assertion that $pi$ is base $8$ normal. Whether it is true is not known. But it is known that "most" numbers are normal to every base.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:40






  • 73




    It's not just the assertion that $pi$ is normal. It also asserts that it is normal because its expansions is infinite and nonrepeating. And that's just plain false.
    – Chris Eagle
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:41






  • 35




    What is certain, is that the 94 first digits of pi do indeed contain the answer to all the great questions of the universe
    – mivk
    Oct 18 '12 at 15:36






  • 16




    The assertion is strictly weaker than normality. It only says each string occurs once. This implies infinitely many occurrences but not equidistribution.
    – Erick Wong
    Oct 18 '12 at 17:44














up vote
552
down vote

favorite
204












I came across the following image:



PI



Which states:




$pi$ Pi



Pi is an infinite, nonrepeating $($sic$)$ decimal - meaning that
every possible number combination exists somewhere in pi. Converted
into ASCII text, somewhere in that infinite string if digits is the
name of every person you will ever love, the date, time and manner of
your death, and the answers to all the great questions of the
universe.




Is this true? Does it make absolutely any sense ?







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 61




    This is unknown. All that is known about $pi$ is that it is transcendental. askamathematician.com/2009/11/…
    – picakhu
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:38







  • 15




    This is the assertion that $pi$ is base $8$ normal. Whether it is true is not known. But it is known that "most" numbers are normal to every base.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:40






  • 73




    It's not just the assertion that $pi$ is normal. It also asserts that it is normal because its expansions is infinite and nonrepeating. And that's just plain false.
    – Chris Eagle
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:41






  • 35




    What is certain, is that the 94 first digits of pi do indeed contain the answer to all the great questions of the universe
    – mivk
    Oct 18 '12 at 15:36






  • 16




    The assertion is strictly weaker than normality. It only says each string occurs once. This implies infinitely many occurrences but not equidistribution.
    – Erick Wong
    Oct 18 '12 at 17:44












up vote
552
down vote

favorite
204









up vote
552
down vote

favorite
204






204





I came across the following image:



PI



Which states:




$pi$ Pi



Pi is an infinite, nonrepeating $($sic$)$ decimal - meaning that
every possible number combination exists somewhere in pi. Converted
into ASCII text, somewhere in that infinite string if digits is the
name of every person you will ever love, the date, time and manner of
your death, and the answers to all the great questions of the
universe.




Is this true? Does it make absolutely any sense ?







share|cite|improve this question













I came across the following image:



PI



Which states:




$pi$ Pi



Pi is an infinite, nonrepeating $($sic$)$ decimal - meaning that
every possible number combination exists somewhere in pi. Converted
into ASCII text, somewhere in that infinite string if digits is the
name of every person you will ever love, the date, time and manner of
your death, and the answers to all the great questions of the
universe.




Is this true? Does it make absolutely any sense ?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 7 at 19:09









PerpetualJ

1306




1306









asked Oct 18 '12 at 14:35









Chani

2,92231112




2,92231112







  • 61




    This is unknown. All that is known about $pi$ is that it is transcendental. askamathematician.com/2009/11/…
    – picakhu
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:38







  • 15




    This is the assertion that $pi$ is base $8$ normal. Whether it is true is not known. But it is known that "most" numbers are normal to every base.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:40






  • 73




    It's not just the assertion that $pi$ is normal. It also asserts that it is normal because its expansions is infinite and nonrepeating. And that's just plain false.
    – Chris Eagle
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:41






  • 35




    What is certain, is that the 94 first digits of pi do indeed contain the answer to all the great questions of the universe
    – mivk
    Oct 18 '12 at 15:36






  • 16




    The assertion is strictly weaker than normality. It only says each string occurs once. This implies infinitely many occurrences but not equidistribution.
    – Erick Wong
    Oct 18 '12 at 17:44












  • 61




    This is unknown. All that is known about $pi$ is that it is transcendental. askamathematician.com/2009/11/…
    – picakhu
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:38







  • 15




    This is the assertion that $pi$ is base $8$ normal. Whether it is true is not known. But it is known that "most" numbers are normal to every base.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:40






  • 73




    It's not just the assertion that $pi$ is normal. It also asserts that it is normal because its expansions is infinite and nonrepeating. And that's just plain false.
    – Chris Eagle
    Oct 18 '12 at 14:41






  • 35




    What is certain, is that the 94 first digits of pi do indeed contain the answer to all the great questions of the universe
    – mivk
    Oct 18 '12 at 15:36






  • 16




    The assertion is strictly weaker than normality. It only says each string occurs once. This implies infinitely many occurrences but not equidistribution.
    – Erick Wong
    Oct 18 '12 at 17:44







61




61




This is unknown. All that is known about $pi$ is that it is transcendental. askamathematician.com/2009/11/…
– picakhu
Oct 18 '12 at 14:38





This is unknown. All that is known about $pi$ is that it is transcendental. askamathematician.com/2009/11/…
– picakhu
Oct 18 '12 at 14:38





15




15




This is the assertion that $pi$ is base $8$ normal. Whether it is true is not known. But it is known that "most" numbers are normal to every base.
– André Nicolas
Oct 18 '12 at 14:40




This is the assertion that $pi$ is base $8$ normal. Whether it is true is not known. But it is known that "most" numbers are normal to every base.
– André Nicolas
Oct 18 '12 at 14:40




73




73




It's not just the assertion that $pi$ is normal. It also asserts that it is normal because its expansions is infinite and nonrepeating. And that's just plain false.
– Chris Eagle
Oct 18 '12 at 14:41




It's not just the assertion that $pi$ is normal. It also asserts that it is normal because its expansions is infinite and nonrepeating. And that's just plain false.
– Chris Eagle
Oct 18 '12 at 14:41




35




35




What is certain, is that the 94 first digits of pi do indeed contain the answer to all the great questions of the universe
– mivk
Oct 18 '12 at 15:36




What is certain, is that the 94 first digits of pi do indeed contain the answer to all the great questions of the universe
– mivk
Oct 18 '12 at 15:36




16




16




The assertion is strictly weaker than normality. It only says each string occurs once. This implies infinitely many occurrences but not equidistribution.
– Erick Wong
Oct 18 '12 at 17:44




The assertion is strictly weaker than normality. It only says each string occurs once. This implies infinitely many occurrences but not equidistribution.
– Erick Wong
Oct 18 '12 at 17:44










14 Answers
14






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up vote
637
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accepted










It is not true that an infinite, non-repeating decimal must contain ‘every possible number combination’. The decimal $0.011000111100000111111dots$ is an easy counterexample. However, if the decimal expansion of $pi$ contains every possible finite string of digits, which seems quite likely, then the rest of the statement is indeed correct. Of course, in that case it also contains numerical equivalents of every book that will never be written, among other things.






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  • 505




    I'll bet this answer is in there too.
    – AccidentallyObtuse
    Oct 19 '12 at 2:02






  • 6




    @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
    – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
    Oct 19 '12 at 2:34






  • 61




    Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
    – Alex
    Oct 19 '12 at 9:53






  • 44




    @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Oct 19 '12 at 16:52






  • 9




    @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
    – Brian M. Scott
    Oct 21 '12 at 9:45

















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Let me summarize the things that have been said which are true and add one more thing.



  1. $pi$ is not known to have this property, but it is expected to be true.

  2. This property does not follow from the fact that the decimal expansion of $pi$ is infinite and does not repeat.

The one more thing is the following. The assertion that the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask is contained somewhere in the digits of $pi$ may be true, but it's useless. Here is a string which may make this point clearer: just string together every possible sentence in English, first by length and then by alphabetical order. The resulting string contains the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask, but



  • most of what it contains is garbage,

  • you have no way of knowing what is and isn't garbage a priori, and

  • the only way to refer to a part of the string that isn't garbage is to describe its position in the string, and the bits required to do this themselves constitute a (terrible) encoding of the string. So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself (that is, finding the answer to whatever question you wanted to ask).

In other words, a string which contains everything contains nothing. Useful communication is useful because of what it does not contain.



You should keep all of the above in mind and then read Jorge Luis Borges' The Library of Babel. (A library which contains every book contains no books.)






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  • 13




    Nice reference! That's a fun read.
    – Manny Reyes
    Oct 18 '12 at 22:47






  • 15




    "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
    – Charles Stewart
    Oct 19 '12 at 12:06






  • 6




    What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
    – naught101
    Oct 21 '12 at 5:55






  • 2




    @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
    – Qiaochu Yuan
    Dec 1 '12 at 3:16






  • 1




    @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
    – Mario Carneiro
    Feb 5 '14 at 14:13

















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It is widely believed that $pi$ is a normal number. This (or even the weaker property of being disjunctive) implies that every possible string occurs somewhere in its expansion.



So yes, it has the story of your life -- but it also has many false stories, many subtly wrong statements, and lots of gibberish.






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  • 219




    And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
    – Scott Rippey
    Oct 18 '12 at 19:33






  • 5




    @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
    – Charles
    Jan 30 '15 at 17:21










  • @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
    – MickLH
    Feb 17 '17 at 22:24







  • 2




    @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
    – Charles
    Feb 18 '17 at 1:33










  • I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
    – MickLH
    Feb 18 '17 at 1:35

















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According to Mathematica, when $pi$ is expressed in base 128 (whose digits can therefore be interpreted as ASCII characters),



  • "NO" appears at position 702;


  • "Yes" appears at position 303351.


Given (following Feynman in his Lectures on Physics) that any question $A$ with possible answer $A'$ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is $A'$ a correct answer to $A$?", and that such questions have either "no" or "yes" answers, this proves the second sentence of the claim--and shows just how empty an assertion it is. (As others have remarked, the first sentence--depending on its interpretation--is either wrong or has unknown truth value.)




Code



pNO = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 710]];
pYes = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 303400]];
StringPosition[pNO, "NO"], StringPosition[pYes, "Yes"]



702, 703, , 303351, 303353,







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  • 3




    Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
    – QED
    Oct 19 '12 at 2:53






  • 3




    Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
    – Chani
    Oct 19 '12 at 4:58






  • 2




    Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
    – LarsH
    Oct 19 '12 at 9:56






  • 5




    @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
    – whuber
    Oct 19 '12 at 13:40






  • 10




    @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
    – whuber
    Oct 19 '12 at 20:43

















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This is an open question. It is not yet known if $pi$ is a normal number.



http://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalNumber.html






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  • 5




    or even disjunctive.
    – LarsH
    Oct 19 '12 at 19:57

















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47
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Whether or not it's true, it's absolutely useless.



Imagine finding your life story: a copiously documented and flawless recounting of every day of your life... right up until yesterday where it states that you died and abruptly reverts back to gibberish. If pi truly contains every possible string, then that story is in there, too. Now, imagine if it said you die tomorrow. Would you believe it, or keep searching for the next copy of your life story?



The problem is that there is no structure to the information. It would take a herculean effort to process all of that data to get to the "correct" section, and immense wisdom to recognize it as correct. So if you were thinking of using pi as an oracle to determine these things, you might as well count every single atom that comprises planet Earth. That should serve as a nice warm up.






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  • 32




    nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
    – Dan Burton
    Oct 18 '12 at 22:41






  • 6




    It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
    – Douglas S. Stones
    Oct 19 '12 at 0:27






  • 3




    @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
    – Chani
    Oct 19 '12 at 5:03






  • 5




    It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
    – dan_waterworth
    Oct 19 '12 at 8:05






  • 6




    I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
    – redbmk
    Oct 19 '12 at 17:22


















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In general it it not true that an "infinite non-repeating decimal" contains any sequence in it. Consider for example the number $0.01001000100001000001000000100000001...$.



However, it is not known if $pi$ does contain ever sequence.






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  • It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
    – Supuhstar
    Oct 21 '12 at 6:52






  • 13




    @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
    – Robert Mastragostino
    Oct 22 '12 at 16:47

















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This is False.
Claim: Infinite and Non-Repeating, therefore must have EVERY combination.



Counterexample:
01001100011100001111... This is infinite and non-repeating yet does not have every combination.



Just because something is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean it has every combination.



Pi may indeed have every combination but you cant use this claim to say that it does.






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    up vote
    21
    down vote













    I believe the statement could be worded more accurately. Given the reasonable assumption that PI is infinitely non repeating, it doesn't follow that it would actually incude any particular sequence.



    Take this thought experiment as an analogy. Imagine you had to sit in a room for all eternity sayings words, without every ever uttering the same word twice. You would very soon find yourself saying very long words. But there's no logical reason why you should have to use up all the possible short words first. In fact you could systematically exclude the words "yes" or every word containing the letter "y", or any other arbitrary subset of the infinite set of possible words.



    Same goes for digit sequences in PI. It's highly probably that any conceivable sequence can be found in PI if you calculate for long enough, but it's not guaranteed by the prescribed conditions.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      21
      down vote













      Challenge accepted. In the following file are the first 1,048,576 digits (1 Megabyte) of pi (including the leading 3) converted to ANSI (with assistance from the algorithm described in https://stackoverflow.com/questions/12991606/):



      https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B9plORbvSu2ra1Atc0QwOGhYZms/edit






      share|cite|improve this answer



















      • 1




        @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
        – Supuhstar
        May 7 '16 at 15:16






      • 1




        someone already ran it
        – Hernán Eche
        Jul 22 '16 at 18:58











      • @HernánEche and?
        – Supuhstar
        Jul 22 '16 at 20:08






      • 3




        and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
        – Hernán Eche
        Jul 26 '16 at 12:43










      • Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
        – Ernesto Iglesias
        Feb 15 '17 at 14:48

















      up vote
      19
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      And even if your statement is true with $pi$, it does not make $pi$ special. If we hit a real number at random, with probability $1$ we will hit a normal number. That is "almost all" real number is like that. The set of not-normal numbers have Lebesgue measure zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer



















      • 4




        How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
        – celtschk
        Jul 12 '15 at 8:29






      • 1




        Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
        – Ernesto Iglesias
        Feb 15 '17 at 14:36










      • I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
        – Ernesto Iglesias
        Feb 15 '17 at 15:05

















      up vote
      13
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      Yes and no. Yes, any non-repeating infinite sequence can be translated into an ascii representation of random gibberish, which will of course randomly contain everything. No, that isn't particularly amazing or useful, because whatever message you are looking for is also mistated and refuted an infinite number of times.



      (For those that say that it isn't necessarily normal, that is unnecessary as the transformation into ascii can be as complex as you like in order to get the result you desire).






      share|cite|improve this answer

















      • 11




        If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
        – dhasenan
        Oct 19 '12 at 18:49






      • 1




        @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
        – jmoreno
        Oct 21 '12 at 22:58

















      up vote
      9
      down vote













      That image contains a number of factual errors, but the most important one is the misleading assertion that irrationality implies disjunctiveness.



      One can easily construct an non-disjunctive, irrational number. Let $ r = sumlimits_n = 0^infty 2^-n begincases 1 & textif 2 | n \ s_n & textelse endcases $ for any non-periodic sequence $ s_n in 0,1 $.



      It is not known whether $ pi $ is, in fact, disjunctive (or even normal).






      share|cite|improve this answer






























        up vote
        -4
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        This question is more of probability and if this is true for $pi$ then it must also be true for $sqrt2%$ $sqrt3%$ etc. as they are also irrational.

        It is also similar as saying that every person has a copy in some part of world which is totally probabilistic and cannot be proved






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
          – Abhishek
          May 13 at 9:18






        • 2




          This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
          – Isky Mathews
          May 13 at 14:44










        • your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
          – Abhishek
          May 14 at 2:45









        protected by Qiaochu Yuan Oct 18 '12 at 22:30



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        14 Answers
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        14 Answers
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        up vote
        637
        down vote



        accepted










        It is not true that an infinite, non-repeating decimal must contain ‘every possible number combination’. The decimal $0.011000111100000111111dots$ is an easy counterexample. However, if the decimal expansion of $pi$ contains every possible finite string of digits, which seems quite likely, then the rest of the statement is indeed correct. Of course, in that case it also contains numerical equivalents of every book that will never be written, among other things.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 505




          I'll bet this answer is in there too.
          – AccidentallyObtuse
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:02






        • 6




          @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
          – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:34






        • 61




          Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
          – Alex
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:53






        • 44




          @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Oct 19 '12 at 16:52






        • 9




          @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
          – Brian M. Scott
          Oct 21 '12 at 9:45














        up vote
        637
        down vote



        accepted










        It is not true that an infinite, non-repeating decimal must contain ‘every possible number combination’. The decimal $0.011000111100000111111dots$ is an easy counterexample. However, if the decimal expansion of $pi$ contains every possible finite string of digits, which seems quite likely, then the rest of the statement is indeed correct. Of course, in that case it also contains numerical equivalents of every book that will never be written, among other things.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 505




          I'll bet this answer is in there too.
          – AccidentallyObtuse
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:02






        • 6




          @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
          – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:34






        • 61




          Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
          – Alex
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:53






        • 44




          @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Oct 19 '12 at 16:52






        • 9




          @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
          – Brian M. Scott
          Oct 21 '12 at 9:45












        up vote
        637
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        637
        down vote



        accepted






        It is not true that an infinite, non-repeating decimal must contain ‘every possible number combination’. The decimal $0.011000111100000111111dots$ is an easy counterexample. However, if the decimal expansion of $pi$ contains every possible finite string of digits, which seems quite likely, then the rest of the statement is indeed correct. Of course, in that case it also contains numerical equivalents of every book that will never be written, among other things.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        It is not true that an infinite, non-repeating decimal must contain ‘every possible number combination’. The decimal $0.011000111100000111111dots$ is an easy counterexample. However, if the decimal expansion of $pi$ contains every possible finite string of digits, which seems quite likely, then the rest of the statement is indeed correct. Of course, in that case it also contains numerical equivalents of every book that will never be written, among other things.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Oct 18 '12 at 14:40









        Brian M. Scott

        448k39492879




        448k39492879







        • 505




          I'll bet this answer is in there too.
          – AccidentallyObtuse
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:02






        • 6




          @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
          – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:34






        • 61




          Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
          – Alex
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:53






        • 44




          @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Oct 19 '12 at 16:52






        • 9




          @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
          – Brian M. Scott
          Oct 21 '12 at 9:45












        • 505




          I'll bet this answer is in there too.
          – AccidentallyObtuse
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:02






        • 6




          @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
          – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:34






        • 61




          Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
          – Alex
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:53






        • 44




          @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Oct 19 '12 at 16:52






        • 9




          @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
          – Brian M. Scott
          Oct 21 '12 at 9:45







        505




        505




        I'll bet this answer is in there too.
        – AccidentallyObtuse
        Oct 19 '12 at 2:02




        I'll bet this answer is in there too.
        – AccidentallyObtuse
        Oct 19 '12 at 2:02




        6




        6




        @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
        – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
        Oct 19 '12 at 2:34




        @makerofthings7: Yes, a representation of the entire internet would be in there too. Every representation, in fact.
        – BlueRaja - Danny Pflughoeft
        Oct 19 '12 at 2:34




        61




        61




        Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
        – Alex
        Oct 19 '12 at 9:53




        Why does it seem likely, that the decimal expansion of π contains every possible finite string of digits?
        – Alex
        Oct 19 '12 at 9:53




        44




        44




        @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
        – Qiaochu Yuan
        Oct 19 '12 at 16:52




        @Alex: there's no particular reason for the digits of $pi$ to have any special pattern to them, so mathematicians expect that the digits of $pi$ more or less "behave randomly," and a random sequence of digits contains every possible finite string of digits with probability $1$ by Borel's normal number theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number#Properties_and_examples
        – Qiaochu Yuan
        Oct 19 '12 at 16:52




        9




        9




        @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
        – Brian M. Scott
        Oct 21 '12 at 9:45




        @Mariano: Oh, there’s a book that someone ought to write: Borges in Asgard! :-)
        – Brian M. Scott
        Oct 21 '12 at 9:45










        up vote
        415
        down vote













        Let me summarize the things that have been said which are true and add one more thing.



        1. $pi$ is not known to have this property, but it is expected to be true.

        2. This property does not follow from the fact that the decimal expansion of $pi$ is infinite and does not repeat.

        The one more thing is the following. The assertion that the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask is contained somewhere in the digits of $pi$ may be true, but it's useless. Here is a string which may make this point clearer: just string together every possible sentence in English, first by length and then by alphabetical order. The resulting string contains the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask, but



        • most of what it contains is garbage,

        • you have no way of knowing what is and isn't garbage a priori, and

        • the only way to refer to a part of the string that isn't garbage is to describe its position in the string, and the bits required to do this themselves constitute a (terrible) encoding of the string. So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself (that is, finding the answer to whatever question you wanted to ask).

        In other words, a string which contains everything contains nothing. Useful communication is useful because of what it does not contain.



        You should keep all of the above in mind and then read Jorge Luis Borges' The Library of Babel. (A library which contains every book contains no books.)






        share|cite|improve this answer



















        • 13




          Nice reference! That's a fun read.
          – Manny Reyes
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:47






        • 15




          "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
          – Charles Stewart
          Oct 19 '12 at 12:06






        • 6




          What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
          – naught101
          Oct 21 '12 at 5:55






        • 2




          @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Dec 1 '12 at 3:16






        • 1




          @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
          – Mario Carneiro
          Feb 5 '14 at 14:13














        up vote
        415
        down vote













        Let me summarize the things that have been said which are true and add one more thing.



        1. $pi$ is not known to have this property, but it is expected to be true.

        2. This property does not follow from the fact that the decimal expansion of $pi$ is infinite and does not repeat.

        The one more thing is the following. The assertion that the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask is contained somewhere in the digits of $pi$ may be true, but it's useless. Here is a string which may make this point clearer: just string together every possible sentence in English, first by length and then by alphabetical order. The resulting string contains the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask, but



        • most of what it contains is garbage,

        • you have no way of knowing what is and isn't garbage a priori, and

        • the only way to refer to a part of the string that isn't garbage is to describe its position in the string, and the bits required to do this themselves constitute a (terrible) encoding of the string. So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself (that is, finding the answer to whatever question you wanted to ask).

        In other words, a string which contains everything contains nothing. Useful communication is useful because of what it does not contain.



        You should keep all of the above in mind and then read Jorge Luis Borges' The Library of Babel. (A library which contains every book contains no books.)






        share|cite|improve this answer



















        • 13




          Nice reference! That's a fun read.
          – Manny Reyes
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:47






        • 15




          "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
          – Charles Stewart
          Oct 19 '12 at 12:06






        • 6




          What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
          – naught101
          Oct 21 '12 at 5:55






        • 2




          @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Dec 1 '12 at 3:16






        • 1




          @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
          – Mario Carneiro
          Feb 5 '14 at 14:13












        up vote
        415
        down vote










        up vote
        415
        down vote









        Let me summarize the things that have been said which are true and add one more thing.



        1. $pi$ is not known to have this property, but it is expected to be true.

        2. This property does not follow from the fact that the decimal expansion of $pi$ is infinite and does not repeat.

        The one more thing is the following. The assertion that the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask is contained somewhere in the digits of $pi$ may be true, but it's useless. Here is a string which may make this point clearer: just string together every possible sentence in English, first by length and then by alphabetical order. The resulting string contains the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask, but



        • most of what it contains is garbage,

        • you have no way of knowing what is and isn't garbage a priori, and

        • the only way to refer to a part of the string that isn't garbage is to describe its position in the string, and the bits required to do this themselves constitute a (terrible) encoding of the string. So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself (that is, finding the answer to whatever question you wanted to ask).

        In other words, a string which contains everything contains nothing. Useful communication is useful because of what it does not contain.



        You should keep all of the above in mind and then read Jorge Luis Borges' The Library of Babel. (A library which contains every book contains no books.)






        share|cite|improve this answer















        Let me summarize the things that have been said which are true and add one more thing.



        1. $pi$ is not known to have this property, but it is expected to be true.

        2. This property does not follow from the fact that the decimal expansion of $pi$ is infinite and does not repeat.

        The one more thing is the following. The assertion that the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask is contained somewhere in the digits of $pi$ may be true, but it's useless. Here is a string which may make this point clearer: just string together every possible sentence in English, first by length and then by alphabetical order. The resulting string contains the answer to every question you could possibly want to ask, but



        • most of what it contains is garbage,

        • you have no way of knowing what is and isn't garbage a priori, and

        • the only way to refer to a part of the string that isn't garbage is to describe its position in the string, and the bits required to do this themselves constitute a (terrible) encoding of the string. So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself (that is, finding the answer to whatever question you wanted to ask).

        In other words, a string which contains everything contains nothing. Useful communication is useful because of what it does not contain.



        You should keep all of the above in mind and then read Jorge Luis Borges' The Library of Babel. (A library which contains every book contains no books.)







        share|cite|improve this answer















        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Oct 20 '12 at 18:46


























        answered Oct 18 '12 at 22:38









        Qiaochu Yuan

        269k32564900




        269k32564900







        • 13




          Nice reference! That's a fun read.
          – Manny Reyes
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:47






        • 15




          "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
          – Charles Stewart
          Oct 19 '12 at 12:06






        • 6




          What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
          – naught101
          Oct 21 '12 at 5:55






        • 2




          @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Dec 1 '12 at 3:16






        • 1




          @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
          – Mario Carneiro
          Feb 5 '14 at 14:13












        • 13




          Nice reference! That's a fun read.
          – Manny Reyes
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:47






        • 15




          "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
          – Charles Stewart
          Oct 19 '12 at 12:06






        • 6




          What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
          – naught101
          Oct 21 '12 at 5:55






        • 2




          @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
          – Qiaochu Yuan
          Dec 1 '12 at 3:16






        • 1




          @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
          – Mario Carneiro
          Feb 5 '14 at 14:13







        13




        13




        Nice reference! That's a fun read.
        – Manny Reyes
        Oct 18 '12 at 22:47




        Nice reference! That's a fun read.
        – Manny Reyes
        Oct 18 '12 at 22:47




        15




        15




        "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
        – Charles Stewart
        Oct 19 '12 at 12:06




        "So finding this location is exactly as hard as finding the string itself" - indeed, rather harder: if I know how long a message is, I have an upper bound on the inormation contained in the encoding. But I have no upper bound on the information needed to represent the index into any given normal number.
        – Charles Stewart
        Oct 19 '12 at 12:06




        6




        6




        What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
        – naught101
        Oct 21 '12 at 5:55




        What if you layout all the sentences in order of usefulness? :P
        – naught101
        Oct 21 '12 at 5:55




        2




        2




        @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
        – Qiaochu Yuan
        Dec 1 '12 at 3:16




        @corsiKa: what I'm saying is that the location of a message in $pi$ is itself information, and that location doesn't come for free. Trying to communicate information by pointing to where it is in $pi$ constitutes an extremely inefficient encryption algorithm.
        – Qiaochu Yuan
        Dec 1 '12 at 3:16




        1




        1




        @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
        – Mario Carneiro
        Feb 5 '14 at 14:13




        @didibus Not really, because natural language satisfies a form of Turing-completeness: you could just say "The answer to problem X is, in binary, one one zero one ..." and proceed to give a binary encoding of a description of your "improved" language followed by an encoding of the message itself. Thus any other Turing-complete language can be delivered in English (and most other natural languages in use).
        – Mario Carneiro
        Feb 5 '14 at 14:13










        up vote
        197
        down vote













        It is widely believed that $pi$ is a normal number. This (or even the weaker property of being disjunctive) implies that every possible string occurs somewhere in its expansion.



        So yes, it has the story of your life -- but it also has many false stories, many subtly wrong statements, and lots of gibberish.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 219




          And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
          – Scott Rippey
          Oct 18 '12 at 19:33






        • 5




          @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
          – Charles
          Jan 30 '15 at 17:21










        • @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
          – MickLH
          Feb 17 '17 at 22:24







        • 2




          @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
          – Charles
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:33










        • I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
          – MickLH
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:35














        up vote
        197
        down vote













        It is widely believed that $pi$ is a normal number. This (or even the weaker property of being disjunctive) implies that every possible string occurs somewhere in its expansion.



        So yes, it has the story of your life -- but it also has many false stories, many subtly wrong statements, and lots of gibberish.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 219




          And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
          – Scott Rippey
          Oct 18 '12 at 19:33






        • 5




          @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
          – Charles
          Jan 30 '15 at 17:21










        • @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
          – MickLH
          Feb 17 '17 at 22:24







        • 2




          @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
          – Charles
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:33










        • I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
          – MickLH
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:35












        up vote
        197
        down vote










        up vote
        197
        down vote









        It is widely believed that $pi$ is a normal number. This (or even the weaker property of being disjunctive) implies that every possible string occurs somewhere in its expansion.



        So yes, it has the story of your life -- but it also has many false stories, many subtly wrong statements, and lots of gibberish.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        It is widely believed that $pi$ is a normal number. This (or even the weaker property of being disjunctive) implies that every possible string occurs somewhere in its expansion.



        So yes, it has the story of your life -- but it also has many false stories, many subtly wrong statements, and lots of gibberish.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Oct 18 '12 at 14:39









        Charles

        23.3k449112




        23.3k449112







        • 219




          And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
          – Scott Rippey
          Oct 18 '12 at 19:33






        • 5




          @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
          – Charles
          Jan 30 '15 at 17:21










        • @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
          – MickLH
          Feb 17 '17 at 22:24







        • 2




          @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
          – Charles
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:33










        • I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
          – MickLH
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:35












        • 219




          And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
          – Scott Rippey
          Oct 18 '12 at 19:33






        • 5




          @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
          – Charles
          Jan 30 '15 at 17:21










        • @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
          – MickLH
          Feb 17 '17 at 22:24







        • 2




          @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
          – Charles
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:33










        • I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
          – MickLH
          Feb 18 '17 at 1:35







        219




        219




        And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
        – Scott Rippey
        Oct 18 '12 at 19:33




        And you wouldn't believe the terrible spelling.
        – Scott Rippey
        Oct 18 '12 at 19:33




        5




        5




        @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
        – Charles
        Jan 30 '15 at 17:21




        @SydKerckhove: It's normal in the sense that almost all numbers have this property. Numbers like 7 and 4/3 that lack this property are very rare indeed (though still infinite).
        – Charles
        Jan 30 '15 at 17:21












        @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
        – MickLH
        Feb 17 '17 at 22:24





        @Charles Errr.. It's normal in the sense that the digits are distributed uniformly.
        – MickLH
        Feb 17 '17 at 22:24





        2




        2




        @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
        – Charles
        Feb 18 '17 at 1:33




        @MickLH But the reason that the property is called "normal" rather than, say, "weird" is that it occurs in a measure 1 subset of the reals.
        – Charles
        Feb 18 '17 at 1:33












        I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
        – MickLH
        Feb 18 '17 at 1:35




        I see what you're saying! thanks for clarifying
        – MickLH
        Feb 18 '17 at 1:35










        up vote
        91
        down vote













        According to Mathematica, when $pi$ is expressed in base 128 (whose digits can therefore be interpreted as ASCII characters),



        • "NO" appears at position 702;


        • "Yes" appears at position 303351.


        Given (following Feynman in his Lectures on Physics) that any question $A$ with possible answer $A'$ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is $A'$ a correct answer to $A$?", and that such questions have either "no" or "yes" answers, this proves the second sentence of the claim--and shows just how empty an assertion it is. (As others have remarked, the first sentence--depending on its interpretation--is either wrong or has unknown truth value.)




        Code



        pNO = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 710]];
        pYes = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 303400]];
        StringPosition[pNO, "NO"], StringPosition[pYes, "Yes"]



        702, 703, , 303351, 303353,







        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 3




          Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
          – QED
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:53






        • 3




          Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 4:58






        • 2




          Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:56






        • 5




          @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 13:40






        • 10




          @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 20:43














        up vote
        91
        down vote













        According to Mathematica, when $pi$ is expressed in base 128 (whose digits can therefore be interpreted as ASCII characters),



        • "NO" appears at position 702;


        • "Yes" appears at position 303351.


        Given (following Feynman in his Lectures on Physics) that any question $A$ with possible answer $A'$ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is $A'$ a correct answer to $A$?", and that such questions have either "no" or "yes" answers, this proves the second sentence of the claim--and shows just how empty an assertion it is. (As others have remarked, the first sentence--depending on its interpretation--is either wrong or has unknown truth value.)




        Code



        pNO = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 710]];
        pYes = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 303400]];
        StringPosition[pNO, "NO"], StringPosition[pYes, "Yes"]



        702, 703, , 303351, 303353,







        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 3




          Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
          – QED
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:53






        • 3




          Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 4:58






        • 2




          Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:56






        • 5




          @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 13:40






        • 10




          @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 20:43












        up vote
        91
        down vote










        up vote
        91
        down vote









        According to Mathematica, when $pi$ is expressed in base 128 (whose digits can therefore be interpreted as ASCII characters),



        • "NO" appears at position 702;


        • "Yes" appears at position 303351.


        Given (following Feynman in his Lectures on Physics) that any question $A$ with possible answer $A'$ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is $A'$ a correct answer to $A$?", and that such questions have either "no" or "yes" answers, this proves the second sentence of the claim--and shows just how empty an assertion it is. (As others have remarked, the first sentence--depending on its interpretation--is either wrong or has unknown truth value.)




        Code



        pNO = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 710]];
        pYes = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 303400]];
        StringPosition[pNO, "NO"], StringPosition[pYes, "Yes"]



        702, 703, , 303351, 303353,







        share|cite|improve this answer













        According to Mathematica, when $pi$ is expressed in base 128 (whose digits can therefore be interpreted as ASCII characters),



        • "NO" appears at position 702;


        • "Yes" appears at position 303351.


        Given (following Feynman in his Lectures on Physics) that any question $A$ with possible answer $A'$ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is $A'$ a correct answer to $A$?", and that such questions have either "no" or "yes" answers, this proves the second sentence of the claim--and shows just how empty an assertion it is. (As others have remarked, the first sentence--depending on its interpretation--is either wrong or has unknown truth value.)




        Code



        pNO = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 710]];
        pYes = FromCharacterCode[RealDigits[[Pi], 128, 303400]];
        StringPosition[pNO, "NO"], StringPosition[pYes, "Yes"]



        702, 703, , 303351, 303353,








        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Oct 18 '12 at 19:52









        whuber

        7,0082034




        7,0082034







        • 3




          Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
          – QED
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:53






        • 3




          Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 4:58






        • 2




          Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:56






        • 5




          @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 13:40






        • 10




          @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 20:43












        • 3




          Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
          – QED
          Oct 19 '12 at 2:53






        • 3




          Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 4:58






        • 2




          Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 9:56






        • 5




          @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 13:40






        • 10




          @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
          – whuber
          Oct 19 '12 at 20:43







        3




        3




        Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
        – QED
        Oct 19 '12 at 2:53




        Please advise: where does 'pi' or 'π' occur?
        – QED
        Oct 19 '12 at 2:53




        3




        3




        Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
        – Chani
        Oct 19 '12 at 4:58




        Special thanks to you sir, for your example !
        – Chani
        Oct 19 '12 at 4:58




        2




        2




        Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
        – LarsH
        Oct 19 '12 at 9:56




        Is it true 'that any question A with possible answer A′ (correct or not) can be re-expressed in the form "Is A′ a correct answer to A?"' Does that reduce the "all the great questions of the universe" to some inferior subset? I don't know, just asking.
        – LarsH
        Oct 19 '12 at 9:56




        5




        5




        @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
        – whuber
        Oct 19 '12 at 13:40




        @LarsH That's a good question--but it starts to push us more into philosophy than mathematics. This re-expression of every great question as a yes-no question requires that you accept that every such question does have a definite answer and that you also accept the Law of the Excluded Middle.
        – whuber
        Oct 19 '12 at 13:40




        10




        10




        @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
        – whuber
        Oct 19 '12 at 20:43




        @Lars I was just riffing off Feynman, not quoting him. What he actually said is that there likely is a single equation describing all the laws of physics. As I recall, just collect all the basic equations of physical law (presumably finite in number), express them each in the form $u_i=0$, and then write $sum_i |u_i|^2 = 0$. This trivial re-expression of things that look complicated into something superficially looking much simpler was my motivation for arguing all the great questions of life can be made into yes-no questions.
        – whuber
        Oct 19 '12 at 20:43










        up vote
        88
        down vote













        This is an open question. It is not yet known if $pi$ is a normal number.



        http://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalNumber.html






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 5




          or even disjunctive.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 19:57














        up vote
        88
        down vote













        This is an open question. It is not yet known if $pi$ is a normal number.



        http://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalNumber.html






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 5




          or even disjunctive.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 19:57












        up vote
        88
        down vote










        up vote
        88
        down vote









        This is an open question. It is not yet known if $pi$ is a normal number.



        http://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalNumber.html






        share|cite|improve this answer













        This is an open question. It is not yet known if $pi$ is a normal number.



        http://mathworld.wolfram.com/NormalNumber.html







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Oct 18 '12 at 14:39









        axblount

        1,97611016




        1,97611016







        • 5




          or even disjunctive.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 19:57












        • 5




          or even disjunctive.
          – LarsH
          Oct 19 '12 at 19:57







        5




        5




        or even disjunctive.
        – LarsH
        Oct 19 '12 at 19:57




        or even disjunctive.
        – LarsH
        Oct 19 '12 at 19:57










        up vote
        47
        down vote













        Whether or not it's true, it's absolutely useless.



        Imagine finding your life story: a copiously documented and flawless recounting of every day of your life... right up until yesterday where it states that you died and abruptly reverts back to gibberish. If pi truly contains every possible string, then that story is in there, too. Now, imagine if it said you die tomorrow. Would you believe it, or keep searching for the next copy of your life story?



        The problem is that there is no structure to the information. It would take a herculean effort to process all of that data to get to the "correct" section, and immense wisdom to recognize it as correct. So if you were thinking of using pi as an oracle to determine these things, you might as well count every single atom that comprises planet Earth. That should serve as a nice warm up.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 32




          nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
          – Dan Burton
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:41






        • 6




          It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
          – Douglas S. Stones
          Oct 19 '12 at 0:27






        • 3




          @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 5:03






        • 5




          It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
          – dan_waterworth
          Oct 19 '12 at 8:05






        • 6




          I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
          – redbmk
          Oct 19 '12 at 17:22















        up vote
        47
        down vote













        Whether or not it's true, it's absolutely useless.



        Imagine finding your life story: a copiously documented and flawless recounting of every day of your life... right up until yesterday where it states that you died and abruptly reverts back to gibberish. If pi truly contains every possible string, then that story is in there, too. Now, imagine if it said you die tomorrow. Would you believe it, or keep searching for the next copy of your life story?



        The problem is that there is no structure to the information. It would take a herculean effort to process all of that data to get to the "correct" section, and immense wisdom to recognize it as correct. So if you were thinking of using pi as an oracle to determine these things, you might as well count every single atom that comprises planet Earth. That should serve as a nice warm up.






        share|cite|improve this answer

















        • 32




          nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
          – Dan Burton
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:41






        • 6




          It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
          – Douglas S. Stones
          Oct 19 '12 at 0:27






        • 3




          @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 5:03






        • 5




          It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
          – dan_waterworth
          Oct 19 '12 at 8:05






        • 6




          I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
          – redbmk
          Oct 19 '12 at 17:22













        up vote
        47
        down vote










        up vote
        47
        down vote









        Whether or not it's true, it's absolutely useless.



        Imagine finding your life story: a copiously documented and flawless recounting of every day of your life... right up until yesterday where it states that you died and abruptly reverts back to gibberish. If pi truly contains every possible string, then that story is in there, too. Now, imagine if it said you die tomorrow. Would you believe it, or keep searching for the next copy of your life story?



        The problem is that there is no structure to the information. It would take a herculean effort to process all of that data to get to the "correct" section, and immense wisdom to recognize it as correct. So if you were thinking of using pi as an oracle to determine these things, you might as well count every single atom that comprises planet Earth. That should serve as a nice warm up.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        Whether or not it's true, it's absolutely useless.



        Imagine finding your life story: a copiously documented and flawless recounting of every day of your life... right up until yesterday where it states that you died and abruptly reverts back to gibberish. If pi truly contains every possible string, then that story is in there, too. Now, imagine if it said you die tomorrow. Would you believe it, or keep searching for the next copy of your life story?



        The problem is that there is no structure to the information. It would take a herculean effort to process all of that data to get to the "correct" section, and immense wisdom to recognize it as correct. So if you were thinking of using pi as an oracle to determine these things, you might as well count every single atom that comprises planet Earth. That should serve as a nice warm up.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Oct 18 '12 at 22:28









        Dan Burton

        57134




        57134







        • 32




          nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
          – Dan Burton
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:41






        • 6




          It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
          – Douglas S. Stones
          Oct 19 '12 at 0:27






        • 3




          @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 5:03






        • 5




          It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
          – dan_waterworth
          Oct 19 '12 at 8:05






        • 6




          I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
          – redbmk
          Oct 19 '12 at 17:22













        • 32




          nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
          – Dan Burton
          Oct 18 '12 at 22:41






        • 6




          It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
          – Douglas S. Stones
          Oct 19 '12 at 0:27






        • 3




          @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
          – Chani
          Oct 19 '12 at 5:03






        • 5




          It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
          – dan_waterworth
          Oct 19 '12 at 8:05






        • 6




          I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
          – redbmk
          Oct 19 '12 at 17:22








        32




        32




        nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
        – Dan Burton
        Oct 18 '12 at 22:41




        nb. if it is true, then you can justify any rambling, gibberish, or errors with the excuse, "I was just quoting pi".
        – Dan Burton
        Oct 18 '12 at 22:41




        6




        6




        It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
        – Douglas S. Stones
        Oct 19 '12 at 0:27




        It has the use of getting people interested in mathematics (e.g. it motivated this question).
        – Douglas S. Stones
        Oct 19 '12 at 0:27




        3




        3




        @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
        – Chani
        Oct 19 '12 at 5:03




        @DouglasS.Stones I agree, it does provoke interest in mathematics.
        – Chani
        Oct 19 '12 at 5:03




        5




        5




        It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
        – dan_waterworth
        Oct 19 '12 at 8:05




        It would also take about the same amount of information to specify the location that an arbitrary string starts in pi at as the string contains.
        – dan_waterworth
        Oct 19 '12 at 8:05




        6




        6




        I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
        – redbmk
        Oct 19 '12 at 17:22





        I doubt anybody expects to get any information about their life from π. It's just an interesting way to imagine infinity.
        – redbmk
        Oct 19 '12 at 17:22











        up vote
        34
        down vote













        In general it it not true that an "infinite non-repeating decimal" contains any sequence in it. Consider for example the number $0.01001000100001000001000000100000001...$.



        However, it is not known if $pi$ does contain ever sequence.






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
          – Supuhstar
          Oct 21 '12 at 6:52






        • 13




          @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
          – Robert Mastragostino
          Oct 22 '12 at 16:47














        up vote
        34
        down vote













        In general it it not true that an "infinite non-repeating decimal" contains any sequence in it. Consider for example the number $0.01001000100001000001000000100000001...$.



        However, it is not known if $pi$ does contain ever sequence.






        share|cite|improve this answer





















        • It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
          – Supuhstar
          Oct 21 '12 at 6:52






        • 13




          @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
          – Robert Mastragostino
          Oct 22 '12 at 16:47












        up vote
        34
        down vote










        up vote
        34
        down vote









        In general it it not true that an "infinite non-repeating decimal" contains any sequence in it. Consider for example the number $0.01001000100001000001000000100000001...$.



        However, it is not known if $pi$ does contain ever sequence.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        In general it it not true that an "infinite non-repeating decimal" contains any sequence in it. Consider for example the number $0.01001000100001000001000000100000001...$.



        However, it is not known if $pi$ does contain ever sequence.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Oct 18 '12 at 14:40









        Thomas

        34.9k1056116




        34.9k1056116











        • It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
          – Supuhstar
          Oct 21 '12 at 6:52






        • 13




          @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
          – Robert Mastragostino
          Oct 22 '12 at 16:47
















        • It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
          – Supuhstar
          Oct 21 '12 at 6:52






        • 13




          @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
          – Robert Mastragostino
          Oct 22 '12 at 16:47















        It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
        – Supuhstar
        Oct 21 '12 at 6:52




        It can't be known if ANY sequence contains all possible combinations of numbers, as that is infinite and unreachable.
        – Supuhstar
        Oct 21 '12 at 6:52




        13




        13




        @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
        – Robert Mastragostino
        Oct 22 '12 at 16:47




        @Supuhstar unless the sequence is specifically defined with that in mind, like by concatenating numbers consecutively: $0.12345678910111213141516...$
        – Robert Mastragostino
        Oct 22 '12 at 16:47










        up vote
        31
        down vote













        This is False.
        Claim: Infinite and Non-Repeating, therefore must have EVERY combination.



        Counterexample:
        01001100011100001111... This is infinite and non-repeating yet does not have every combination.



        Just because something is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean it has every combination.



        Pi may indeed have every combination but you cant use this claim to say that it does.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          31
          down vote













          This is False.
          Claim: Infinite and Non-Repeating, therefore must have EVERY combination.



          Counterexample:
          01001100011100001111... This is infinite and non-repeating yet does not have every combination.



          Just because something is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean it has every combination.



          Pi may indeed have every combination but you cant use this claim to say that it does.






          share|cite|improve this answer























            up vote
            31
            down vote










            up vote
            31
            down vote









            This is False.
            Claim: Infinite and Non-Repeating, therefore must have EVERY combination.



            Counterexample:
            01001100011100001111... This is infinite and non-repeating yet does not have every combination.



            Just because something is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean it has every combination.



            Pi may indeed have every combination but you cant use this claim to say that it does.






            share|cite|improve this answer













            This is False.
            Claim: Infinite and Non-Repeating, therefore must have EVERY combination.



            Counterexample:
            01001100011100001111... This is infinite and non-repeating yet does not have every combination.



            Just because something is infinite and non-repeating doesn't mean it has every combination.



            Pi may indeed have every combination but you cant use this claim to say that it does.







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Oct 18 '12 at 17:32









            antz

            42038




            42038




















                up vote
                21
                down vote













                I believe the statement could be worded more accurately. Given the reasonable assumption that PI is infinitely non repeating, it doesn't follow that it would actually incude any particular sequence.



                Take this thought experiment as an analogy. Imagine you had to sit in a room for all eternity sayings words, without every ever uttering the same word twice. You would very soon find yourself saying very long words. But there's no logical reason why you should have to use up all the possible short words first. In fact you could systematically exclude the words "yes" or every word containing the letter "y", or any other arbitrary subset of the infinite set of possible words.



                Same goes for digit sequences in PI. It's highly probably that any conceivable sequence can be found in PI if you calculate for long enough, but it's not guaranteed by the prescribed conditions.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  21
                  down vote













                  I believe the statement could be worded more accurately. Given the reasonable assumption that PI is infinitely non repeating, it doesn't follow that it would actually incude any particular sequence.



                  Take this thought experiment as an analogy. Imagine you had to sit in a room for all eternity sayings words, without every ever uttering the same word twice. You would very soon find yourself saying very long words. But there's no logical reason why you should have to use up all the possible short words first. In fact you could systematically exclude the words "yes" or every word containing the letter "y", or any other arbitrary subset of the infinite set of possible words.



                  Same goes for digit sequences in PI. It's highly probably that any conceivable sequence can be found in PI if you calculate for long enough, but it's not guaranteed by the prescribed conditions.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    21
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    21
                    down vote









                    I believe the statement could be worded more accurately. Given the reasonable assumption that PI is infinitely non repeating, it doesn't follow that it would actually incude any particular sequence.



                    Take this thought experiment as an analogy. Imagine you had to sit in a room for all eternity sayings words, without every ever uttering the same word twice. You would very soon find yourself saying very long words. But there's no logical reason why you should have to use up all the possible short words first. In fact you could systematically exclude the words "yes" or every word containing the letter "y", or any other arbitrary subset of the infinite set of possible words.



                    Same goes for digit sequences in PI. It's highly probably that any conceivable sequence can be found in PI if you calculate for long enough, but it's not guaranteed by the prescribed conditions.






                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    I believe the statement could be worded more accurately. Given the reasonable assumption that PI is infinitely non repeating, it doesn't follow that it would actually incude any particular sequence.



                    Take this thought experiment as an analogy. Imagine you had to sit in a room for all eternity sayings words, without every ever uttering the same word twice. You would very soon find yourself saying very long words. But there's no logical reason why you should have to use up all the possible short words first. In fact you could systematically exclude the words "yes" or every word containing the letter "y", or any other arbitrary subset of the infinite set of possible words.



                    Same goes for digit sequences in PI. It's highly probably that any conceivable sequence can be found in PI if you calculate for long enough, but it's not guaranteed by the prescribed conditions.







                    share|cite|improve this answer













                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    answered Oct 18 '12 at 21:40









                    Nat

                    32815




                    32815




















                        up vote
                        21
                        down vote













                        Challenge accepted. In the following file are the first 1,048,576 digits (1 Megabyte) of pi (including the leading 3) converted to ANSI (with assistance from the algorithm described in https://stackoverflow.com/questions/12991606/):



                        https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B9plORbvSu2ra1Atc0QwOGhYZms/edit






                        share|cite|improve this answer



















                        • 1




                          @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
                          – Supuhstar
                          May 7 '16 at 15:16






                        • 1




                          someone already ran it
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 22 '16 at 18:58











                        • @HernánEche and?
                          – Supuhstar
                          Jul 22 '16 at 20:08






                        • 3




                          and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 26 '16 at 12:43










                        • Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:48














                        up vote
                        21
                        down vote













                        Challenge accepted. In the following file are the first 1,048,576 digits (1 Megabyte) of pi (including the leading 3) converted to ANSI (with assistance from the algorithm described in https://stackoverflow.com/questions/12991606/):



                        https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B9plORbvSu2ra1Atc0QwOGhYZms/edit






                        share|cite|improve this answer



















                        • 1




                          @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
                          – Supuhstar
                          May 7 '16 at 15:16






                        • 1




                          someone already ran it
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 22 '16 at 18:58











                        • @HernánEche and?
                          – Supuhstar
                          Jul 22 '16 at 20:08






                        • 3




                          and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 26 '16 at 12:43










                        • Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:48












                        up vote
                        21
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        21
                        down vote









                        Challenge accepted. In the following file are the first 1,048,576 digits (1 Megabyte) of pi (including the leading 3) converted to ANSI (with assistance from the algorithm described in https://stackoverflow.com/questions/12991606/):



                        https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B9plORbvSu2ra1Atc0QwOGhYZms/edit






                        share|cite|improve this answer















                        Challenge accepted. In the following file are the first 1,048,576 digits (1 Megabyte) of pi (including the leading 3) converted to ANSI (with assistance from the algorithm described in https://stackoverflow.com/questions/12991606/):



                        https://docs.google.com/file/d/0B9plORbvSu2ra1Atc0QwOGhYZms/edit







                        share|cite|improve this answer















                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited May 23 '17 at 12:39









                        Community♦

                        1




                        1











                        answered Oct 21 '12 at 6:31









                        Supuhstar

                        6491613




                        6491613







                        • 1




                          @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
                          – Supuhstar
                          May 7 '16 at 15:16






                        • 1




                          someone already ran it
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 22 '16 at 18:58











                        • @HernánEche and?
                          – Supuhstar
                          Jul 22 '16 at 20:08






                        • 3




                          and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 26 '16 at 12:43










                        • Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:48












                        • 1




                          @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
                          – Supuhstar
                          May 7 '16 at 15:16






                        • 1




                          someone already ran it
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 22 '16 at 18:58











                        • @HernánEche and?
                          – Supuhstar
                          Jul 22 '16 at 20:08






                        • 3




                          and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
                          – Hernán Eche
                          Jul 26 '16 at 12:43










                        • Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:48







                        1




                        1




                        @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
                        – Supuhstar
                        May 7 '16 at 15:16




                        @MarkHurd someone should try running it :3
                        – Supuhstar
                        May 7 '16 at 15:16




                        1




                        1




                        someone already ran it
                        – Hernán Eche
                        Jul 22 '16 at 18:58





                        someone already ran it
                        – Hernán Eche
                        Jul 22 '16 at 18:58













                        @HernánEche and?
                        – Supuhstar
                        Jul 22 '16 at 20:08




                        @HernánEche and?
                        – Supuhstar
                        Jul 22 '16 at 20:08




                        3




                        3




                        and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
                        – Hernán Eche
                        Jul 26 '16 at 12:43




                        and.. we are the running code effects, living in a matrix-like universe simulation, encoded in pi.
                        – Hernán Eche
                        Jul 26 '16 at 12:43












                        Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
                        – Ernesto Iglesias
                        Feb 15 '17 at 14:48




                        Wilding say: "Joy" occurs thrice, and "sad" a whopping 11 times ! - it depends on the encoding, as they have 3 different letters there is a encoding such as sex is written 11 times and sad 3 so: the message depends on the messenger
                        – Ernesto Iglesias
                        Feb 15 '17 at 14:48










                        up vote
                        19
                        down vote













                        And even if your statement is true with $pi$, it does not make $pi$ special. If we hit a real number at random, with probability $1$ we will hit a normal number. That is "almost all" real number is like that. The set of not-normal numbers have Lebesgue measure zero.






                        share|cite|improve this answer



















                        • 4




                          How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
                          – celtschk
                          Jul 12 '15 at 8:29






                        • 1




                          Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:36










                        • I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 15:05














                        up vote
                        19
                        down vote













                        And even if your statement is true with $pi$, it does not make $pi$ special. If we hit a real number at random, with probability $1$ we will hit a normal number. That is "almost all" real number is like that. The set of not-normal numbers have Lebesgue measure zero.






                        share|cite|improve this answer



















                        • 4




                          How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
                          – celtschk
                          Jul 12 '15 at 8:29






                        • 1




                          Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:36










                        • I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 15:05












                        up vote
                        19
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        19
                        down vote









                        And even if your statement is true with $pi$, it does not make $pi$ special. If we hit a real number at random, with probability $1$ we will hit a normal number. That is "almost all" real number is like that. The set of not-normal numbers have Lebesgue measure zero.






                        share|cite|improve this answer















                        And even if your statement is true with $pi$, it does not make $pi$ special. If we hit a real number at random, with probability $1$ we will hit a normal number. That is "almost all" real number is like that. The set of not-normal numbers have Lebesgue measure zero.







                        share|cite|improve this answer















                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited May 26 '14 at 22:33


























                        answered Apr 21 '13 at 15:32









                        mez

                        4,99032768




                        4,99032768







                        • 4




                          How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
                          – celtschk
                          Jul 12 '15 at 8:29






                        • 1




                          Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:36










                        • I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 15:05












                        • 4




                          How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
                          – celtschk
                          Jul 12 '15 at 8:29






                        • 1




                          Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 14:36










                        • I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
                          – Ernesto Iglesias
                          Feb 15 '17 at 15:05







                        4




                        4




                        How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
                        – celtschk
                        Jul 12 '15 at 8:29




                        How do you know that the set of non-normal numbers is Lebesgue measurable?
                        – celtschk
                        Jul 12 '15 at 8:29




                        1




                        1




                        Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
                        – Ernesto Iglesias
                        Feb 15 '17 at 14:36




                        Please give a cite, or literature for that answer!!!!! It is a big deal to say something like that.
                        – Ernesto Iglesias
                        Feb 15 '17 at 14:36












                        I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
                        – Ernesto Iglesias
                        Feb 15 '17 at 15:05




                        I found a cite for this result, but I can't say if it is acurete or not: math.boku.ac.at/udt/vol09/no2/06filsus.pdf
                        – Ernesto Iglesias
                        Feb 15 '17 at 15:05










                        up vote
                        13
                        down vote













                        Yes and no. Yes, any non-repeating infinite sequence can be translated into an ascii representation of random gibberish, which will of course randomly contain everything. No, that isn't particularly amazing or useful, because whatever message you are looking for is also mistated and refuted an infinite number of times.



                        (For those that say that it isn't necessarily normal, that is unnecessary as the transformation into ascii can be as complex as you like in order to get the result you desire).






                        share|cite|improve this answer

















                        • 11




                          If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
                          – dhasenan
                          Oct 19 '12 at 18:49






                        • 1




                          @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
                          – jmoreno
                          Oct 21 '12 at 22:58














                        up vote
                        13
                        down vote













                        Yes and no. Yes, any non-repeating infinite sequence can be translated into an ascii representation of random gibberish, which will of course randomly contain everything. No, that isn't particularly amazing or useful, because whatever message you are looking for is also mistated and refuted an infinite number of times.



                        (For those that say that it isn't necessarily normal, that is unnecessary as the transformation into ascii can be as complex as you like in order to get the result you desire).






                        share|cite|improve this answer

















                        • 11




                          If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
                          – dhasenan
                          Oct 19 '12 at 18:49






                        • 1




                          @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
                          – jmoreno
                          Oct 21 '12 at 22:58












                        up vote
                        13
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        13
                        down vote









                        Yes and no. Yes, any non-repeating infinite sequence can be translated into an ascii representation of random gibberish, which will of course randomly contain everything. No, that isn't particularly amazing or useful, because whatever message you are looking for is also mistated and refuted an infinite number of times.



                        (For those that say that it isn't necessarily normal, that is unnecessary as the transformation into ascii can be as complex as you like in order to get the result you desire).






                        share|cite|improve this answer













                        Yes and no. Yes, any non-repeating infinite sequence can be translated into an ascii representation of random gibberish, which will of course randomly contain everything. No, that isn't particularly amazing or useful, because whatever message you are looking for is also mistated and refuted an infinite number of times.



                        (For those that say that it isn't necessarily normal, that is unnecessary as the transformation into ascii can be as complex as you like in order to get the result you desire).







                        share|cite|improve this answer













                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        answered Oct 19 '12 at 1:20









                        jmoreno

                        34117




                        34117







                        • 11




                          If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
                          – dhasenan
                          Oct 19 '12 at 18:49






                        • 1




                          @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
                          – jmoreno
                          Oct 21 '12 at 22:58












                        • 11




                          If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
                          – dhasenan
                          Oct 19 '12 at 18:49






                        • 1




                          @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
                          – jmoreno
                          Oct 21 '12 at 22:58







                        11




                        11




                        If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
                        – dhasenan
                        Oct 19 '12 at 18:49




                        If you allow arbitrarily complex encodings, you get the same result with 0 as with pi.
                        – dhasenan
                        Oct 19 '12 at 18:49




                        1




                        1




                        @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
                        – jmoreno
                        Oct 21 '12 at 22:58




                        @dhasenan: that's not complex, that is just eliminating the value you are supposedly encoding and replacing it with a non-repeating infinite sequence.
                        – jmoreno
                        Oct 21 '12 at 22:58










                        up vote
                        9
                        down vote













                        That image contains a number of factual errors, but the most important one is the misleading assertion that irrationality implies disjunctiveness.



                        One can easily construct an non-disjunctive, irrational number. Let $ r = sumlimits_n = 0^infty 2^-n begincases 1 & textif 2 | n \ s_n & textelse endcases $ for any non-periodic sequence $ s_n in 0,1 $.



                        It is not known whether $ pi $ is, in fact, disjunctive (or even normal).






                        share|cite|improve this answer



























                          up vote
                          9
                          down vote













                          That image contains a number of factual errors, but the most important one is the misleading assertion that irrationality implies disjunctiveness.



                          One can easily construct an non-disjunctive, irrational number. Let $ r = sumlimits_n = 0^infty 2^-n begincases 1 & textif 2 | n \ s_n & textelse endcases $ for any non-periodic sequence $ s_n in 0,1 $.



                          It is not known whether $ pi $ is, in fact, disjunctive (or even normal).






                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            9
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            9
                            down vote









                            That image contains a number of factual errors, but the most important one is the misleading assertion that irrationality implies disjunctiveness.



                            One can easily construct an non-disjunctive, irrational number. Let $ r = sumlimits_n = 0^infty 2^-n begincases 1 & textif 2 | n \ s_n & textelse endcases $ for any non-periodic sequence $ s_n in 0,1 $.



                            It is not known whether $ pi $ is, in fact, disjunctive (or even normal).






                            share|cite|improve this answer















                            That image contains a number of factual errors, but the most important one is the misleading assertion that irrationality implies disjunctiveness.



                            One can easily construct an non-disjunctive, irrational number. Let $ r = sumlimits_n = 0^infty 2^-n begincases 1 & textif 2 | n \ s_n & textelse endcases $ for any non-periodic sequence $ s_n in 0,1 $.



                            It is not known whether $ pi $ is, in fact, disjunctive (or even normal).







                            share|cite|improve this answer















                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Nov 4 '16 at 13:05









                            Michael Rozenberg

                            88.4k1579180




                            88.4k1579180











                            answered Jul 20 '16 at 10:11









                            M. Fischer

                            850413




                            850413




















                                up vote
                                -4
                                down vote













                                This question is more of probability and if this is true for $pi$ then it must also be true for $sqrt2%$ $sqrt3%$ etc. as they are also irrational.

                                It is also similar as saying that every person has a copy in some part of world which is totally probabilistic and cannot be proved






                                share|cite|improve this answer





















                                • this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 13 at 9:18






                                • 2




                                  This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
                                  – Isky Mathews
                                  May 13 at 14:44










                                • your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 14 at 2:45














                                up vote
                                -4
                                down vote













                                This question is more of probability and if this is true for $pi$ then it must also be true for $sqrt2%$ $sqrt3%$ etc. as they are also irrational.

                                It is also similar as saying that every person has a copy in some part of world which is totally probabilistic and cannot be proved






                                share|cite|improve this answer





















                                • this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 13 at 9:18






                                • 2




                                  This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
                                  – Isky Mathews
                                  May 13 at 14:44










                                • your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 14 at 2:45












                                up vote
                                -4
                                down vote










                                up vote
                                -4
                                down vote









                                This question is more of probability and if this is true for $pi$ then it must also be true for $sqrt2%$ $sqrt3%$ etc. as they are also irrational.

                                It is also similar as saying that every person has a copy in some part of world which is totally probabilistic and cannot be proved






                                share|cite|improve this answer













                                This question is more of probability and if this is true for $pi$ then it must also be true for $sqrt2%$ $sqrt3%$ etc. as they are also irrational.

                                It is also similar as saying that every person has a copy in some part of world which is totally probabilistic and cannot be proved







                                share|cite|improve this answer













                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer











                                answered May 13 at 9:08









                                Abhishek

                                256221




                                256221











                                • this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 13 at 9:18






                                • 2




                                  This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
                                  – Isky Mathews
                                  May 13 at 14:44










                                • your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 14 at 2:45
















                                • this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 13 at 9:18






                                • 2




                                  This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
                                  – Isky Mathews
                                  May 13 at 14:44










                                • your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
                                  – Abhishek
                                  May 14 at 2:45















                                this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
                                – Abhishek
                                May 13 at 9:18




                                this is the exact answer it must be upvoted
                                – Abhishek
                                May 13 at 9:18




                                2




                                2




                                This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
                                – Isky Mathews
                                May 13 at 14:44




                                This is wrong. The number $0.1011011101111...$ which consists of strings of 1s of length $n$ for all positive integer $n$ separated by 0s definitely does not contain all possible sequences of digits but is irrational. This is not a probabilistic question, as numbers such as $pi$ are uniquely defined and not "random events" (whatever this would mean for numbers). What you are thinking of is normal numbers.
                                – Isky Mathews
                                May 13 at 14:44












                                your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
                                – Abhishek
                                May 14 at 2:45




                                your number is irrational but we can be sure that it contains only $0$'s and $1$'s but in$pi$ all digits occur and any combination may occur
                                – Abhishek
                                May 14 at 2:45





                                protected by Qiaochu Yuan Oct 18 '12 at 22:30



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