prove: $mathrm|A|=|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$ when $mathrmA$

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Let $$mathrm$$ as $A$ is a given set such that $|A| > 1$.



For every $ngeq1$, let $mathrmA^n$ be the set of function from $0,1,....,n-1$ to $mathrmA$.




prove: $$mathrm|A|=|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$




if we look on any object: $mathrmA^iinmathrmA^n$ as $iinmathbbN$ and $sum_i=1^n-1mathrmA^i=mathrmA^n$ , than any $mathrmA^i:ilongrightarrowmathrmA$ as I understand is defined to be onto, therefore $mathrmA^n$ is onto $A$, so $$|mathrmA|leq|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$
(this is just some ideas I had because I didn't really found any information about how to solve this type of Q).



after that, it is clear that I'll need to use the fact $mathrm$ in some way so I could use CBS, but i really can't find the way to solve this.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • You also need $A $ to be infinite (singletons are a counterexample).
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    May 22 at 13:00






  • 1




    Hint: the given inequality is $|A^2|le|A|$, which implies $|A^n|le|A|$ for all $n$.
    – Mike Earnest
    May 22 at 13:18











  • @AndrésE.Caicedo is it allowed to say: given $|A|geq|Atimes A|$, suppose $|A|geq|A^n|$. prove: $|A|geq|A^n+1|$ $A^n+1=A^ntimes A$ and since $|A|geq|Atimes A|$ and by the induction hypothesis, we'll get that $|A|geq|A^n+1| $?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:22










  • @Jneven That is obvious. The difficulty of the problem lies elsewhere.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 28 at 13:45










  • @AndrésE.Caicedo i managed to prove that for every $nin mathbbN^+; |A| geq |A^n|$. I'd want to prove the other direction, that there exists an inversiable function $f:A to bigcup_nin mathbb N^+ A^n$, and i'm not sure how.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:46















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Let $$mathrm$$ as $A$ is a given set such that $|A| > 1$.



For every $ngeq1$, let $mathrmA^n$ be the set of function from $0,1,....,n-1$ to $mathrmA$.




prove: $$mathrm|A|=|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$




if we look on any object: $mathrmA^iinmathrmA^n$ as $iinmathbbN$ and $sum_i=1^n-1mathrmA^i=mathrmA^n$ , than any $mathrmA^i:ilongrightarrowmathrmA$ as I understand is defined to be onto, therefore $mathrmA^n$ is onto $A$, so $$|mathrmA|leq|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$
(this is just some ideas I had because I didn't really found any information about how to solve this type of Q).



after that, it is clear that I'll need to use the fact $mathrm$ in some way so I could use CBS, but i really can't find the way to solve this.







share|cite|improve this question






















  • You also need $A $ to be infinite (singletons are a counterexample).
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    May 22 at 13:00






  • 1




    Hint: the given inequality is $|A^2|le|A|$, which implies $|A^n|le|A|$ for all $n$.
    – Mike Earnest
    May 22 at 13:18











  • @AndrésE.Caicedo is it allowed to say: given $|A|geq|Atimes A|$, suppose $|A|geq|A^n|$. prove: $|A|geq|A^n+1|$ $A^n+1=A^ntimes A$ and since $|A|geq|Atimes A|$ and by the induction hypothesis, we'll get that $|A|geq|A^n+1| $?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:22










  • @Jneven That is obvious. The difficulty of the problem lies elsewhere.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 28 at 13:45










  • @AndrésE.Caicedo i managed to prove that for every $nin mathbbN^+; |A| geq |A^n|$. I'd want to prove the other direction, that there exists an inversiable function $f:A to bigcup_nin mathbb N^+ A^n$, and i'm not sure how.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:46













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $$mathrm$$ as $A$ is a given set such that $|A| > 1$.



For every $ngeq1$, let $mathrmA^n$ be the set of function from $0,1,....,n-1$ to $mathrmA$.




prove: $$mathrm|A|=|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$




if we look on any object: $mathrmA^iinmathrmA^n$ as $iinmathbbN$ and $sum_i=1^n-1mathrmA^i=mathrmA^n$ , than any $mathrmA^i:ilongrightarrowmathrmA$ as I understand is defined to be onto, therefore $mathrmA^n$ is onto $A$, so $$|mathrmA|leq|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$
(this is just some ideas I had because I didn't really found any information about how to solve this type of Q).



after that, it is clear that I'll need to use the fact $mathrm$ in some way so I could use CBS, but i really can't find the way to solve this.







share|cite|improve this question














Let $$mathrm$$ as $A$ is a given set such that $|A| > 1$.



For every $ngeq1$, let $mathrmA^n$ be the set of function from $0,1,....,n-1$ to $mathrmA$.




prove: $$mathrm|A|=|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$




if we look on any object: $mathrmA^iinmathrmA^n$ as $iinmathbbN$ and $sum_i=1^n-1mathrmA^i=mathrmA^n$ , than any $mathrmA^i:ilongrightarrowmathrmA$ as I understand is defined to be onto, therefore $mathrmA^n$ is onto $A$, so $$|mathrmA|leq|cup_ninmathbbN^mathrm+mathrmA^n|$$
(this is just some ideas I had because I didn't really found any information about how to solve this type of Q).



after that, it is clear that I'll need to use the fact $mathrm$ in some way so I could use CBS, but i really can't find the way to solve this.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 28 at 11:59

























asked May 22 at 12:29









Jneven

637320




637320











  • You also need $A $ to be infinite (singletons are a counterexample).
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    May 22 at 13:00






  • 1




    Hint: the given inequality is $|A^2|le|A|$, which implies $|A^n|le|A|$ for all $n$.
    – Mike Earnest
    May 22 at 13:18











  • @AndrésE.Caicedo is it allowed to say: given $|A|geq|Atimes A|$, suppose $|A|geq|A^n|$. prove: $|A|geq|A^n+1|$ $A^n+1=A^ntimes A$ and since $|A|geq|Atimes A|$ and by the induction hypothesis, we'll get that $|A|geq|A^n+1| $?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:22










  • @Jneven That is obvious. The difficulty of the problem lies elsewhere.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 28 at 13:45










  • @AndrésE.Caicedo i managed to prove that for every $nin mathbbN^+; |A| geq |A^n|$. I'd want to prove the other direction, that there exists an inversiable function $f:A to bigcup_nin mathbb N^+ A^n$, and i'm not sure how.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:46

















  • You also need $A $ to be infinite (singletons are a counterexample).
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    May 22 at 13:00






  • 1




    Hint: the given inequality is $|A^2|le|A|$, which implies $|A^n|le|A|$ for all $n$.
    – Mike Earnest
    May 22 at 13:18











  • @AndrésE.Caicedo is it allowed to say: given $|A|geq|Atimes A|$, suppose $|A|geq|A^n|$. prove: $|A|geq|A^n+1|$ $A^n+1=A^ntimes A$ and since $|A|geq|Atimes A|$ and by the induction hypothesis, we'll get that $|A|geq|A^n+1| $?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:22










  • @Jneven That is obvious. The difficulty of the problem lies elsewhere.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 28 at 13:45










  • @AndrésE.Caicedo i managed to prove that for every $nin mathbbN^+; |A| geq |A^n|$. I'd want to prove the other direction, that there exists an inversiable function $f:A to bigcup_nin mathbb N^+ A^n$, and i'm not sure how.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:46
















You also need $A $ to be infinite (singletons are a counterexample).
– Andrés E. Caicedo
May 22 at 13:00




You also need $A $ to be infinite (singletons are a counterexample).
– Andrés E. Caicedo
May 22 at 13:00




1




1




Hint: the given inequality is $|A^2|le|A|$, which implies $|A^n|le|A|$ for all $n$.
– Mike Earnest
May 22 at 13:18





Hint: the given inequality is $|A^2|le|A|$, which implies $|A^n|le|A|$ for all $n$.
– Mike Earnest
May 22 at 13:18













@AndrésE.Caicedo is it allowed to say: given $|A|geq|Atimes A|$, suppose $|A|geq|A^n|$. prove: $|A|geq|A^n+1|$ $A^n+1=A^ntimes A$ and since $|A|geq|Atimes A|$ and by the induction hypothesis, we'll get that $|A|geq|A^n+1| $?
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:22




@AndrésE.Caicedo is it allowed to say: given $|A|geq|Atimes A|$, suppose $|A|geq|A^n|$. prove: $|A|geq|A^n+1|$ $A^n+1=A^ntimes A$ and since $|A|geq|Atimes A|$ and by the induction hypothesis, we'll get that $|A|geq|A^n+1| $?
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:22












@Jneven That is obvious. The difficulty of the problem lies elsewhere.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Aug 28 at 13:45




@Jneven That is obvious. The difficulty of the problem lies elsewhere.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Aug 28 at 13:45












@AndrésE.Caicedo i managed to prove that for every $nin mathbbN^+; |A| geq |A^n|$. I'd want to prove the other direction, that there exists an inversiable function $f:A to bigcup_nin mathbb N^+ A^n$, and i'm not sure how.
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:46





@AndrésE.Caicedo i managed to prove that for every $nin mathbbN^+; |A| geq |A^n|$. I'd want to prove the other direction, that there exists an inversiable function $f:A to bigcup_nin mathbb N^+ A^n$, and i'm not sure how.
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:46











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote













As noted in the comments, let us suppose that $A$ is neither a singleton nor empty, so that it has to be infinite (it is trivial for the empty set and false for a singleton).



The inequality $|A| leq |bigcup A^n|$ can be seen even easier by noting that there is a trivial bijection between $A$ and $A^1$.
Next, note that $A^n$ can be identified with the $n$-fold cartesian product $underbraceA times dots times A_n text times$, in particular, $A^n+1 = A^n times A$.
Using the hypothesis, you can show by induction that $|A| = |A^n|$ for every $n geq 1$. Now we construct an injection $f colon bigcup A^n rightarrow A$. Let me first explain what we want to do. Imagine $A$ as a square in the plane. Then we will embedd $A^1$ in one half of the square, embedd $A^2$ in one half of the half, i.e. a quarter, of the square, embedd $A^3$ in one eigth of the square and so on. There probably are quicker proofs but mine is explicit.



Consider the sets $A^n$ as subsets of $A^n+1$ simply by embedding them via $(a_1,dots,a_n) mapsto (a_1,dots,a_n,x)$ for some fixed element $x in A$.
Since $|A| = |A^2|$, there is a bijection $f_2 colon A_2 rightarrow A$.
Given an element in $a in A^1$ define $f(a)$ to be $f_2(a)$. This way, $f$ maps $A_1$ onto the set $f_2(A^1)$. Convince yourself that $A setminus f_2(A^1)$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ since we have $|A| = |A^2|$.
Thus, $|A setminus f_2(A^1)| = |A| = |A^3|$ and there is a bijection $f_3 colon A^3 rightarrow A setminus f_2(A^1)$. Given $a in A^2 subset A^3$ define $f(a) = f_3(a)$.
As before, $A setminus (f_2(A^1) cup f_3(A^2))$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ and we can proceed this procedure indefinitely.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:11










  • I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:17










  • The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
    – Florian R
    May 23 at 14:05










  • could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:50










  • I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:52










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote













As noted in the comments, let us suppose that $A$ is neither a singleton nor empty, so that it has to be infinite (it is trivial for the empty set and false for a singleton).



The inequality $|A| leq |bigcup A^n|$ can be seen even easier by noting that there is a trivial bijection between $A$ and $A^1$.
Next, note that $A^n$ can be identified with the $n$-fold cartesian product $underbraceA times dots times A_n text times$, in particular, $A^n+1 = A^n times A$.
Using the hypothesis, you can show by induction that $|A| = |A^n|$ for every $n geq 1$. Now we construct an injection $f colon bigcup A^n rightarrow A$. Let me first explain what we want to do. Imagine $A$ as a square in the plane. Then we will embedd $A^1$ in one half of the square, embedd $A^2$ in one half of the half, i.e. a quarter, of the square, embedd $A^3$ in one eigth of the square and so on. There probably are quicker proofs but mine is explicit.



Consider the sets $A^n$ as subsets of $A^n+1$ simply by embedding them via $(a_1,dots,a_n) mapsto (a_1,dots,a_n,x)$ for some fixed element $x in A$.
Since $|A| = |A^2|$, there is a bijection $f_2 colon A_2 rightarrow A$.
Given an element in $a in A^1$ define $f(a)$ to be $f_2(a)$. This way, $f$ maps $A_1$ onto the set $f_2(A^1)$. Convince yourself that $A setminus f_2(A^1)$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ since we have $|A| = |A^2|$.
Thus, $|A setminus f_2(A^1)| = |A| = |A^3|$ and there is a bijection $f_3 colon A^3 rightarrow A setminus f_2(A^1)$. Given $a in A^2 subset A^3$ define $f(a) = f_3(a)$.
As before, $A setminus (f_2(A^1) cup f_3(A^2))$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ and we can proceed this procedure indefinitely.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:11










  • I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:17










  • The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
    – Florian R
    May 23 at 14:05










  • could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:50










  • I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:52














up vote
2
down vote













As noted in the comments, let us suppose that $A$ is neither a singleton nor empty, so that it has to be infinite (it is trivial for the empty set and false for a singleton).



The inequality $|A| leq |bigcup A^n|$ can be seen even easier by noting that there is a trivial bijection between $A$ and $A^1$.
Next, note that $A^n$ can be identified with the $n$-fold cartesian product $underbraceA times dots times A_n text times$, in particular, $A^n+1 = A^n times A$.
Using the hypothesis, you can show by induction that $|A| = |A^n|$ for every $n geq 1$. Now we construct an injection $f colon bigcup A^n rightarrow A$. Let me first explain what we want to do. Imagine $A$ as a square in the plane. Then we will embedd $A^1$ in one half of the square, embedd $A^2$ in one half of the half, i.e. a quarter, of the square, embedd $A^3$ in one eigth of the square and so on. There probably are quicker proofs but mine is explicit.



Consider the sets $A^n$ as subsets of $A^n+1$ simply by embedding them via $(a_1,dots,a_n) mapsto (a_1,dots,a_n,x)$ for some fixed element $x in A$.
Since $|A| = |A^2|$, there is a bijection $f_2 colon A_2 rightarrow A$.
Given an element in $a in A^1$ define $f(a)$ to be $f_2(a)$. This way, $f$ maps $A_1$ onto the set $f_2(A^1)$. Convince yourself that $A setminus f_2(A^1)$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ since we have $|A| = |A^2|$.
Thus, $|A setminus f_2(A^1)| = |A| = |A^3|$ and there is a bijection $f_3 colon A^3 rightarrow A setminus f_2(A^1)$. Given $a in A^2 subset A^3$ define $f(a) = f_3(a)$.
As before, $A setminus (f_2(A^1) cup f_3(A^2))$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ and we can proceed this procedure indefinitely.






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:11










  • I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:17










  • The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
    – Florian R
    May 23 at 14:05










  • could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:50










  • I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:52












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









As noted in the comments, let us suppose that $A$ is neither a singleton nor empty, so that it has to be infinite (it is trivial for the empty set and false for a singleton).



The inequality $|A| leq |bigcup A^n|$ can be seen even easier by noting that there is a trivial bijection between $A$ and $A^1$.
Next, note that $A^n$ can be identified with the $n$-fold cartesian product $underbraceA times dots times A_n text times$, in particular, $A^n+1 = A^n times A$.
Using the hypothesis, you can show by induction that $|A| = |A^n|$ for every $n geq 1$. Now we construct an injection $f colon bigcup A^n rightarrow A$. Let me first explain what we want to do. Imagine $A$ as a square in the plane. Then we will embedd $A^1$ in one half of the square, embedd $A^2$ in one half of the half, i.e. a quarter, of the square, embedd $A^3$ in one eigth of the square and so on. There probably are quicker proofs but mine is explicit.



Consider the sets $A^n$ as subsets of $A^n+1$ simply by embedding them via $(a_1,dots,a_n) mapsto (a_1,dots,a_n,x)$ for some fixed element $x in A$.
Since $|A| = |A^2|$, there is a bijection $f_2 colon A_2 rightarrow A$.
Given an element in $a in A^1$ define $f(a)$ to be $f_2(a)$. This way, $f$ maps $A_1$ onto the set $f_2(A^1)$. Convince yourself that $A setminus f_2(A^1)$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ since we have $|A| = |A^2|$.
Thus, $|A setminus f_2(A^1)| = |A| = |A^3|$ and there is a bijection $f_3 colon A^3 rightarrow A setminus f_2(A^1)$. Given $a in A^2 subset A^3$ define $f(a) = f_3(a)$.
As before, $A setminus (f_2(A^1) cup f_3(A^2))$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ and we can proceed this procedure indefinitely.






share|cite|improve this answer












As noted in the comments, let us suppose that $A$ is neither a singleton nor empty, so that it has to be infinite (it is trivial for the empty set and false for a singleton).



The inequality $|A| leq |bigcup A^n|$ can be seen even easier by noting that there is a trivial bijection between $A$ and $A^1$.
Next, note that $A^n$ can be identified with the $n$-fold cartesian product $underbraceA times dots times A_n text times$, in particular, $A^n+1 = A^n times A$.
Using the hypothesis, you can show by induction that $|A| = |A^n|$ for every $n geq 1$. Now we construct an injection $f colon bigcup A^n rightarrow A$. Let me first explain what we want to do. Imagine $A$ as a square in the plane. Then we will embedd $A^1$ in one half of the square, embedd $A^2$ in one half of the half, i.e. a quarter, of the square, embedd $A^3$ in one eigth of the square and so on. There probably are quicker proofs but mine is explicit.



Consider the sets $A^n$ as subsets of $A^n+1$ simply by embedding them via $(a_1,dots,a_n) mapsto (a_1,dots,a_n,x)$ for some fixed element $x in A$.
Since $|A| = |A^2|$, there is a bijection $f_2 colon A_2 rightarrow A$.
Given an element in $a in A^1$ define $f(a)$ to be $f_2(a)$. This way, $f$ maps $A_1$ onto the set $f_2(A^1)$. Convince yourself that $A setminus f_2(A^1)$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ since we have $|A| = |A^2|$.
Thus, $|A setminus f_2(A^1)| = |A| = |A^3|$ and there is a bijection $f_3 colon A^3 rightarrow A setminus f_2(A^1)$. Given $a in A^2 subset A^3$ define $f(a) = f_3(a)$.
As before, $A setminus (f_2(A^1) cup f_3(A^2))$ still has the same cardinality as $A$ and we can proceed this procedure indefinitely.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered May 22 at 13:31









Florian R

3408




3408











  • so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:11










  • I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:17










  • The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
    – Florian R
    May 23 at 14:05










  • could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:50










  • I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:52
















  • so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:11










  • I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
    – Jneven
    May 23 at 12:17










  • The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
    – Florian R
    May 23 at 14:05










  • could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:50










  • I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
    – Jneven
    Aug 28 at 13:52















so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
– Jneven
May 23 at 12:11




so just to make sure - the induction you prove by constructing the different injection, or is there other ways to prove it?
– Jneven
May 23 at 12:11












I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
– Jneven
May 23 at 12:17




I understand the idea of the proof but I'm confused about how to "formal" it
– Jneven
May 23 at 12:17












The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
– Florian R
May 23 at 14:05




The induction is just $|A| geq |A times A| geq |A^n times A| = |A^n+1|$, where the second inequality is the induction hypothesis for $n$. What exactly is unclear? I agree that it is a little vague to say "we can do this procedure indefinitely", but I personally would count it as a valid proof.
– Florian R
May 23 at 14:05












could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:50




could you explain how to did you come up with proving that for every $ n, |A| = |A^n|$ ?
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:50












I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:52




I've read you answer for many times and I still can't figure how to organise it and formal it.
– Jneven
Aug 28 at 13:52

















 

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