Asymptotic approximation of the expression $sum _i=0^n log (binomni+1)$

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I am trying to work out the asymptotic approximation (for large $n$) of the following:
$$sum _i=0^n log (binomni+1)$$
So far I tried to write the expression as,
$$sum^n_i=0log(x)=-sum^n_i=0xint^infty_0e^-xtlog tdt-gamma$$
where I took $x=binomni+1$ and $gamma$ is Euler gamma, but I am not sure if this method is so useful. Any other approach is appreciated.







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  • 1




    Is the $+1$ (under the logarithm) essential for the result you need? What is the precision you require?
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:51










  • (For the main term you can just drop it and apply the Stirling's formula.)
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:55






  • 1




    @metamorphy so if one drops 1, then one can write the sum in terms of Gamma and Barnes G functions. I was wondering about keeping +1 to have as much as precision as possible.
    – William
    Aug 28 at 15:24














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I am trying to work out the asymptotic approximation (for large $n$) of the following:
$$sum _i=0^n log (binomni+1)$$
So far I tried to write the expression as,
$$sum^n_i=0log(x)=-sum^n_i=0xint^infty_0e^-xtlog tdt-gamma$$
where I took $x=binomni+1$ and $gamma$ is Euler gamma, but I am not sure if this method is so useful. Any other approach is appreciated.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Is the $+1$ (under the logarithm) essential for the result you need? What is the precision you require?
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:51










  • (For the main term you can just drop it and apply the Stirling's formula.)
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:55






  • 1




    @metamorphy so if one drops 1, then one can write the sum in terms of Gamma and Barnes G functions. I was wondering about keeping +1 to have as much as precision as possible.
    – William
    Aug 28 at 15:24












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I am trying to work out the asymptotic approximation (for large $n$) of the following:
$$sum _i=0^n log (binomni+1)$$
So far I tried to write the expression as,
$$sum^n_i=0log(x)=-sum^n_i=0xint^infty_0e^-xtlog tdt-gamma$$
where I took $x=binomni+1$ and $gamma$ is Euler gamma, but I am not sure if this method is so useful. Any other approach is appreciated.







share|cite|improve this question














I am trying to work out the asymptotic approximation (for large $n$) of the following:
$$sum _i=0^n log (binomni+1)$$
So far I tried to write the expression as,
$$sum^n_i=0log(x)=-sum^n_i=0xint^infty_0e^-xtlog tdt-gamma$$
where I took $x=binomni+1$ and $gamma$ is Euler gamma, but I am not sure if this method is so useful. Any other approach is appreciated.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 28 at 13:16

























asked Aug 28 at 12:46









William

124111




124111







  • 1




    Is the $+1$ (under the logarithm) essential for the result you need? What is the precision you require?
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:51










  • (For the main term you can just drop it and apply the Stirling's formula.)
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:55






  • 1




    @metamorphy so if one drops 1, then one can write the sum in terms of Gamma and Barnes G functions. I was wondering about keeping +1 to have as much as precision as possible.
    – William
    Aug 28 at 15:24












  • 1




    Is the $+1$ (under the logarithm) essential for the result you need? What is the precision you require?
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:51










  • (For the main term you can just drop it and apply the Stirling's formula.)
    – metamorphy
    Aug 28 at 14:55






  • 1




    @metamorphy so if one drops 1, then one can write the sum in terms of Gamma and Barnes G functions. I was wondering about keeping +1 to have as much as precision as possible.
    – William
    Aug 28 at 15:24







1




1




Is the $+1$ (under the logarithm) essential for the result you need? What is the precision you require?
– metamorphy
Aug 28 at 14:51




Is the $+1$ (under the logarithm) essential for the result you need? What is the precision you require?
– metamorphy
Aug 28 at 14:51












(For the main term you can just drop it and apply the Stirling's formula.)
– metamorphy
Aug 28 at 14:55




(For the main term you can just drop it and apply the Stirling's formula.)
– metamorphy
Aug 28 at 14:55




1




1




@metamorphy so if one drops 1, then one can write the sum in terms of Gamma and Barnes G functions. I was wondering about keeping +1 to have as much as precision as possible.
– William
Aug 28 at 15:24




@metamorphy so if one drops 1, then one can write the sum in terms of Gamma and Barnes G functions. I was wondering about keeping +1 to have as much as precision as possible.
– William
Aug 28 at 15:24










1 Answer
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up vote
3
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accepted










The proposer has pointed out the dominant term and the addition of 1 within the log argument is a minor correction.



$$S:=sum_k=0^nlog(1+binomnk) =sum_k=0^n log(binomnk(1+1/binomnk)sim$$
$$simsum_k=0^n log(binomnk)+sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk-frac12sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2+...$$
where a Taylor series of $log(1+x)$ has been used.
It can be shown that
$$sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk =2(1+frac1n+...) text and sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2=2(1+1/n^2+...)$$
We will always know the leading coefficient is 2 because of the $k=0$ and $k=n$ terms. We have an infinite sum of these terms, which fortunately converges because of their alternating weight of $(-1)^m/m.$ The log-binomial sum can be done in closed form:
$$sum_k=0^n log(binomnk)=logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big). $$
$G$ is the Barne's G and its asymptotic expansion is well-known.
Collecting,
$$Ssim logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big) + 2log2+frac2n+O(frac1n^2) $$
Use this expansion for $n=20$ and 4 correct digits are obtained.






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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    The proposer has pointed out the dominant term and the addition of 1 within the log argument is a minor correction.



    $$S:=sum_k=0^nlog(1+binomnk) =sum_k=0^n log(binomnk(1+1/binomnk)sim$$
    $$simsum_k=0^n log(binomnk)+sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk-frac12sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2+...$$
    where a Taylor series of $log(1+x)$ has been used.
    It can be shown that
    $$sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk =2(1+frac1n+...) text and sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2=2(1+1/n^2+...)$$
    We will always know the leading coefficient is 2 because of the $k=0$ and $k=n$ terms. We have an infinite sum of these terms, which fortunately converges because of their alternating weight of $(-1)^m/m.$ The log-binomial sum can be done in closed form:
    $$sum_k=0^n log(binomnk)=logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big). $$
    $G$ is the Barne's G and its asymptotic expansion is well-known.
    Collecting,
    $$Ssim logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big) + 2log2+frac2n+O(frac1n^2) $$
    Use this expansion for $n=20$ and 4 correct digits are obtained.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      The proposer has pointed out the dominant term and the addition of 1 within the log argument is a minor correction.



      $$S:=sum_k=0^nlog(1+binomnk) =sum_k=0^n log(binomnk(1+1/binomnk)sim$$
      $$simsum_k=0^n log(binomnk)+sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk-frac12sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2+...$$
      where a Taylor series of $log(1+x)$ has been used.
      It can be shown that
      $$sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk =2(1+frac1n+...) text and sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2=2(1+1/n^2+...)$$
      We will always know the leading coefficient is 2 because of the $k=0$ and $k=n$ terms. We have an infinite sum of these terms, which fortunately converges because of their alternating weight of $(-1)^m/m.$ The log-binomial sum can be done in closed form:
      $$sum_k=0^n log(binomnk)=logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big). $$
      $G$ is the Barne's G and its asymptotic expansion is well-known.
      Collecting,
      $$Ssim logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big) + 2log2+frac2n+O(frac1n^2) $$
      Use this expansion for $n=20$ and 4 correct digits are obtained.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        The proposer has pointed out the dominant term and the addition of 1 within the log argument is a minor correction.



        $$S:=sum_k=0^nlog(1+binomnk) =sum_k=0^n log(binomnk(1+1/binomnk)sim$$
        $$simsum_k=0^n log(binomnk)+sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk-frac12sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2+...$$
        where a Taylor series of $log(1+x)$ has been used.
        It can be shown that
        $$sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk =2(1+frac1n+...) text and sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2=2(1+1/n^2+...)$$
        We will always know the leading coefficient is 2 because of the $k=0$ and $k=n$ terms. We have an infinite sum of these terms, which fortunately converges because of their alternating weight of $(-1)^m/m.$ The log-binomial sum can be done in closed form:
        $$sum_k=0^n log(binomnk)=logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big). $$
        $G$ is the Barne's G and its asymptotic expansion is well-known.
        Collecting,
        $$Ssim logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big) + 2log2+frac2n+O(frac1n^2) $$
        Use this expansion for $n=20$ and 4 correct digits are obtained.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The proposer has pointed out the dominant term and the addition of 1 within the log argument is a minor correction.



        $$S:=sum_k=0^nlog(1+binomnk) =sum_k=0^n log(binomnk(1+1/binomnk)sim$$
        $$simsum_k=0^n log(binomnk)+sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk-frac12sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2+...$$
        where a Taylor series of $log(1+x)$ has been used.
        It can be shown that
        $$sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk =2(1+frac1n+...) text and sum_k=0^nfrac1binomnk^2=2(1+1/n^2+...)$$
        We will always know the leading coefficient is 2 because of the $k=0$ and $k=n$ terms. We have an infinite sum of these terms, which fortunately converges because of their alternating weight of $(-1)^m/m.$ The log-binomial sum can be done in closed form:
        $$sum_k=0^n log(binomnk)=logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big). $$
        $G$ is the Barne's G and its asymptotic expansion is well-known.
        Collecting,
        $$Ssim logBig(fracn!^n+1G(n+2)^2Big) + 2log2+frac2n+O(frac1n^2) $$
        Use this expansion for $n=20$ and 4 correct digits are obtained.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 28 at 17:01









        skbmoore

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