Constructing bijections between closed connected intervals of $mathbbR$

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So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.



My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$



Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$



so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$




Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.







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  • 1




    Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
    – Randall
    Aug 28 at 15:10











  • The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
    – Steve D
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 2




    Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
    – Sobi
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 1




    A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
    – Matthew Leingang
    Aug 28 at 15:33






  • 1




    Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
    – fleablood
    Aug 28 at 15:42














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.



My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$



Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$



so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$




Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 1




    Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
    – Randall
    Aug 28 at 15:10











  • The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
    – Steve D
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 2




    Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
    – Sobi
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 1




    A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
    – Matthew Leingang
    Aug 28 at 15:33






  • 1




    Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
    – fleablood
    Aug 28 at 15:42












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.



My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$



Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$



so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$




Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.







share|cite|improve this question












So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.



My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$



Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$



so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$




Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.









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asked Aug 28 at 15:09









Perturbative

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  • 1




    Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
    – Randall
    Aug 28 at 15:10











  • The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
    – Steve D
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 2




    Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
    – Sobi
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 1




    A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
    – Matthew Leingang
    Aug 28 at 15:33






  • 1




    Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
    – fleablood
    Aug 28 at 15:42












  • 1




    Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
    – Randall
    Aug 28 at 15:10











  • The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
    – Steve D
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 2




    Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
    – Sobi
    Aug 28 at 15:11






  • 1




    A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
    – Matthew Leingang
    Aug 28 at 15:33






  • 1




    Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
    – fleablood
    Aug 28 at 15:42







1




1




Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
– Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10





Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
– Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10













The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
– Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11




The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
– Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11




2




2




Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
– Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11




Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
– Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11




1




1




A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
– Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33




A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
– Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33




1




1




Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
– fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42




Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
– fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42










3 Answers
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Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.



  1. Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.

Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.



  1. The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.

This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Think in stages:



    i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$



    ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$



    iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$



    iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$



    The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.






    share|cite|improve this answer





























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.



      So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.



      And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$



      So that's your bijection.



      ===



      Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.



      (I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)



      (The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)



      ====



      I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:



      A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.



      We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.



      A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$






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        3 Answers
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        up vote
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        Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.



        1. Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.

        Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.



        1. The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.

        This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.



          1. Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.

          Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.



          1. The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.

          This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.



            1. Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.

            Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.



            1. The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.

            This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.



            1. Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.

            Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.



            1. The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.

            This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 28 at 15:49

























            answered Aug 28 at 15:35









            Lee Mosher

            46k33579




            46k33579




















                up vote
                1
                down vote













                Think in stages:



                i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$



                ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$



                iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$



                iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$



                The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote













                  Think in stages:



                  i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$



                  ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$



                  iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$



                  iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$



                  The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    Think in stages:



                    i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$



                    ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$



                    iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$



                    iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$



                    The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Think in stages:



                    i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$



                    ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$



                    iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$



                    iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$



                    The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Aug 28 at 16:27

























                    answered Aug 28 at 16:22









                    zhw.

                    67.1k42872




                    67.1k42872




















                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.



                        So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.



                        And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$



                        So that's your bijection.



                        ===



                        Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.



                        (I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)



                        (The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)



                        ====



                        I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:



                        A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.



                        We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.



                        A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote













                          It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.



                          So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.



                          And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$



                          So that's your bijection.



                          ===



                          Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.



                          (I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)



                          (The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)



                          ====



                          I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:



                          A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.



                          We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.



                          A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            1
                            down vote









                            It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.



                            So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.



                            And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$



                            So that's your bijection.



                            ===



                            Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.



                            (I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)



                            (The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)



                            ====



                            I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:



                            A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.



                            We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.



                            A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$






                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.



                            So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.



                            And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$



                            So that's your bijection.



                            ===



                            Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.



                            (I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)



                            (The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)



                            ====



                            I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:



                            A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.



                            We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.



                            A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$







                            share|cite|improve this answer














                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer








                            edited Aug 28 at 16:30

























                            answered Aug 28 at 16:14









                            fleablood

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