Constructing bijections between closed connected intervals of $mathbbR$
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So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.
My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$
Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$
so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$
Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.
real-analysis elementary-set-theory
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favorite
So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.
My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$
Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$
so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$
Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.
real-analysis elementary-set-theory
1
Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
â Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10
The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
â Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11
2
Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
â Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11
1
A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
â Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33
1
Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
â fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.
My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$
Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$
so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$
Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.
real-analysis elementary-set-theory
So today in my Algebraic Topology class we were trying to construct a homotopy and at one point we needed to basically construct a (continuous) bijection between some intervals $[a, b]$ and $[c, d]$ sending $a mapsto c$ and $b mapsto d$.
My professor said that a bijection $varphi : [a, b] to [c, d]$ would be a linear function of the form $varphi(x) = alpha x + beta$ and adding the contraints that $varphi(a) = c$ and $varphi(b) = d$ we get a linear system of equations $$alpha cdot a + beta = c$$ $$alpha cdot b + beta =d.$$
Solving this system we get $$alpha = fracc-da-b$$ and $$beta=fracad-bca-b$$
so that $varphi$ is given by $$varphi(x) = left(fracc-da-bright)x + fracad-bca-b$$
Now I was not aware that we could construct a (continuous!) bijection between connected closed intervals of $mathbbR$ so easily. My question is how exactly did my professor know that such a (continuous) bijection would be a linear function of the above form? I've never seen any theorem of the sort or something similar written in any textbook.
real-analysis elementary-set-theory
asked Aug 28 at 15:09
Perturbative
3,62311139
3,62311139
1
Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
â Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10
The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
â Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11
2
Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
â Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11
1
A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
â Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33
1
Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
â fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42
add a comment |Â
1
Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
â Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10
The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
â Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11
2
Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
â Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11
1
A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
â Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33
1
Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
â fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42
1
1
Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
â Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10
Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
â Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10
The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
â Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11
The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
â Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11
2
2
Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
â Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11
Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
â Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11
1
1
A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
â Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33
A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
â Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33
1
1
Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
â fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42
Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
â fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
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Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.
- Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.
Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.
- The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.
This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Think in stages:
i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$
ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$
iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$
iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$
The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.
So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.
And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
So that's your bijection.
===
Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.
(I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)
(The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)
====
I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:
A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.
We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.
A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
add a comment |Â
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.
- Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.
Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.
- The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.
This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.
- Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.
Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.
- The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.
This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.
- Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.
Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.
- The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.
This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.
Here are two pieces of knowledge which, if you possess them and put them together, will tell you that a linear formula like this must exist.
- Given two closed intervals $I,J subset mathbb R$, there is a similarity transformation of the real line $f : mathbb R to mathbb R$ such that $f(I)=J$.
Just to be clear about the definition, to say that $f$ is a similarity transformation means that it stretches distances by a uniform amount, i.e. there is a constant $a>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)| = a |x-y|$. If you have ever studied Euclidean geometry then you might be familiar with similarity transformations, this is just the 1-dimensional version. Given $I$ and $J$ the constant $a$, of course, is just the length of $J$ divided by the length of $I$.
- The similarity transformations of the real line are precisely the first degree polynomials, i.e. the transformations of the form $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ with coefficients $alpha in mathbb R - 0$ and $beta in mathbb R$.
This is not very hard to prove: if $f(x)=alpha x + beta$ prove that it is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a = |alpha|$; and if $f(x)$ is a similarity transformation with stretch constant $a$ then set $beta = f(0)$, and prove that either $f(x)= a x + beta$ or $f(x) = -ax + beta$.
edited Aug 28 at 15:49
answered Aug 28 at 15:35
Lee Mosher
46k33579
46k33579
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Think in stages:
i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$
ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$
iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$
iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$
The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Think in stages:
i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$
ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$
iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$
iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$
The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Think in stages:
i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$
ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$
iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$
iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$
The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.
Think in stages:
i) $,f_1(x) = x-a$ takes $[a,b]$ to $[0,b-a].$
ii) $,f_2(x) = x/(b-a)$ takes $[0,b-a]$ to $[0,1].$
iii) $,f_3(x) = (d-c)x$ takes $[0,1]$ to $[0,d-c].$
iv) $,f_4(x) = x+c$ takes $[0,d-c]$ to $[c,d].$
The map $f_4circ f_3 circ f_2 circ f_1$ then does the job.
edited Aug 28 at 16:27
answered Aug 28 at 16:22
zhw.
67.1k42872
67.1k42872
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
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It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.
So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.
And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
So that's your bijection.
===
Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.
(I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)
(The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)
====
I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:
A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.
We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.
A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.
So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.
And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
So that's your bijection.
===
Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.
(I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)
(The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)
====
I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:
A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.
We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.
A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.
So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.
And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
So that's your bijection.
===
Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.
(I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)
(The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)
====
I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:
A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.
We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.
A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
It should be intuitively clear you can "stretch" and "slide" any two interval to overlap.
So to "stretch" $[a,b]$ to be as long as $[c,d]$ you just have to multiply each of the $x in [a,b]$ by $frac textlength of [c,d]textlength of [a,b] = frac d-cb-a$ to get the point $x *frac d-cb-ain [a*frac d-cb-a, b*frac d-cb-a]$ which will have a length of $b*frac d-cb-a - a*frac d-cb-a= frac d-cb-a(b - a) = d-c$.
And to "slide" it, we need to slide the point $a*frac d-cb-a$ to $c$ so we need to add $c - a*frac d-cb-a$ so that the point $x *frac d-cb-a$ gets slid to $x *frac d-cb-a + (c - a*frac d-cb-a)=frac d-cb-ax + frac c(b-a) - a(d-c)b-a = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
So that's your bijection.
===
Perhaps an even easier way to see it, is to take Randall's sugestion in the comments. On a $x,y$ cartesian plane look at the rectangular section of $[a,b]$ in the $x$ axis and $[c,d]$ in the $y$ access. Now just draw a line from one corner to the other. That line will be your bijection.
(I'll be honest. I never thought of this. It's.... trivially easy. But... I never came up with it on my own.)
(The slope of the line is $frac d-cb-a$ and it contains the point $(a,c)$ so the equation of the line is $y- c = frac d-cb-a(x-a)$ which becomes $y = f(x) = frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$)
====
I suppose the way that is most into intuitive for me is:
A point $x in [a,b]$ is some proportion $t$ of the length of $[a,b]$ past $a$. That is $x = a + t*(b-a)$ for some real number $0 le t le 1$.
We want to transfer $x = a + t(b-a)$ to a point that is the same proportion of of the length of $[c,d]$ past $c$. That is we want to map $x = a+t(b-a) mapsto c + t(d-c)$.
A little bit of algebra and we get $t = frac x-ab-a$ and so we want to map $x mapsto c + frac x-ab-a(d-c) = frac d-cb-ax + (c - afrac d-cb-a)= frac c-db-ax + frac cb-adb-a$
edited Aug 28 at 16:30
answered Aug 28 at 16:14
fleablood
61.1k22676
61.1k22676
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1
Draw the graph. Put $[a,b]$ on the $x$-axis and $[c,d]$ on the $y$. Draw a straight line. You don't need a theorem.
â Randall
Aug 28 at 15:10
The theorem follows because linear maps can take 2 points to any other two points. Thus you can take $a,b$ to $c,d$, and let connectedness take care of the rest.
â Steve D
Aug 28 at 15:11
2
Well, $[c,d]$ is, in some sense, a translated (the coefficent $beta$) and stretched (the coefficient $alpha$) version of $[a,b]$, so you could expect the bijection to be a linear map.
â Sobi
Aug 28 at 15:11
1
A continuous bijection isn't necessarily linear, but since all you needed was to construct one, a linear function suffices.
â Matthew Leingang
Aug 28 at 15:33
1
Frankly, I'm astonished that you are surprised. It should be intuitively obvious that one can "stretch" and "slide" $[a,b]$ so that it is imposed over $[c,d]$ and everything inbetween "follows proportionally". Your professor is just doing the math that would make that happen.
â fleablood
Aug 28 at 15:42