Proving the uniqueness of a vector projection onto orthogonal complement
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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So this is a part of a larger question. The question starts as follows.
Let $v in mathbbR^n$ be a nonzero vector, and denote by $v^perp subset mathbbR^n$ the set of vectors $w in mathbbR^n$ such that $vâ w=0$
a) Show that $v^perp$ is a subspace of $mathbbR^n$
b) Given any vector $a in mathbbR^n$, show that $(a-fracaâ v^2v) in v^perp$
c) Define the projection of $a$ onto $v^perp$ by the formula $$P_v^perp(a)=(a-fracaâ v^2v). $$ Show that there is a unique number $t(a)$ such that $(a+t(a)v) in v^perp$. Show that $$a+t(a)v = P_v^perp(a)$$
Parts a and b were relatively straight forward because you just had to apply the definition of subspace and $v^perp$. However, I am confused on part c.
MY ATTEMPT AT PART C
Suppose that $a+t_1(a)v in v^perp$ and $a+t_2(a)v in v^perp$. Then applying the definition of $v^perp$, we have
$$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = 0 $$
$$vâ (a+t_2(a)v) = 0$$ Then $$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = vâ (a+t_2(a)v)$$ $$vâ a+t_1(a)vâ v = vâ a+t_2(a)vâ v$$ Then, $$t_1(a)||v||^2=t_2(a)||v||^2$$ Thus, $$t_1(a)= t_2(a)$$ So here I have proved uniqueness. However, now I am unsure of how to prove that $$t(a) = -fracaâ v^2$$ which is essentially what the question is asking me to do. Do I just assume that $t(a)$ is that number? Would I say that since $t(a)$ is unique, I can choose a single number to represent $t(a)$. I am unsure of how to finish this proof.
linear-algebra orthogonality projection
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So this is a part of a larger question. The question starts as follows.
Let $v in mathbbR^n$ be a nonzero vector, and denote by $v^perp subset mathbbR^n$ the set of vectors $w in mathbbR^n$ such that $vâ w=0$
a) Show that $v^perp$ is a subspace of $mathbbR^n$
b) Given any vector $a in mathbbR^n$, show that $(a-fracaâ v^2v) in v^perp$
c) Define the projection of $a$ onto $v^perp$ by the formula $$P_v^perp(a)=(a-fracaâ v^2v). $$ Show that there is a unique number $t(a)$ such that $(a+t(a)v) in v^perp$. Show that $$a+t(a)v = P_v^perp(a)$$
Parts a and b were relatively straight forward because you just had to apply the definition of subspace and $v^perp$. However, I am confused on part c.
MY ATTEMPT AT PART C
Suppose that $a+t_1(a)v in v^perp$ and $a+t_2(a)v in v^perp$. Then applying the definition of $v^perp$, we have
$$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = 0 $$
$$vâ (a+t_2(a)v) = 0$$ Then $$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = vâ (a+t_2(a)v)$$ $$vâ a+t_1(a)vâ v = vâ a+t_2(a)vâ v$$ Then, $$t_1(a)||v||^2=t_2(a)||v||^2$$ Thus, $$t_1(a)= t_2(a)$$ So here I have proved uniqueness. However, now I am unsure of how to prove that $$t(a) = -fracaâ v^2$$ which is essentially what the question is asking me to do. Do I just assume that $t(a)$ is that number? Would I say that since $t(a)$ is unique, I can choose a single number to represent $t(a)$. I am unsure of how to finish this proof.
linear-algebra orthogonality projection
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
So this is a part of a larger question. The question starts as follows.
Let $v in mathbbR^n$ be a nonzero vector, and denote by $v^perp subset mathbbR^n$ the set of vectors $w in mathbbR^n$ such that $vâ w=0$
a) Show that $v^perp$ is a subspace of $mathbbR^n$
b) Given any vector $a in mathbbR^n$, show that $(a-fracaâ v^2v) in v^perp$
c) Define the projection of $a$ onto $v^perp$ by the formula $$P_v^perp(a)=(a-fracaâ v^2v). $$ Show that there is a unique number $t(a)$ such that $(a+t(a)v) in v^perp$. Show that $$a+t(a)v = P_v^perp(a)$$
Parts a and b were relatively straight forward because you just had to apply the definition of subspace and $v^perp$. However, I am confused on part c.
MY ATTEMPT AT PART C
Suppose that $a+t_1(a)v in v^perp$ and $a+t_2(a)v in v^perp$. Then applying the definition of $v^perp$, we have
$$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = 0 $$
$$vâ (a+t_2(a)v) = 0$$ Then $$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = vâ (a+t_2(a)v)$$ $$vâ a+t_1(a)vâ v = vâ a+t_2(a)vâ v$$ Then, $$t_1(a)||v||^2=t_2(a)||v||^2$$ Thus, $$t_1(a)= t_2(a)$$ So here I have proved uniqueness. However, now I am unsure of how to prove that $$t(a) = -fracaâ v^2$$ which is essentially what the question is asking me to do. Do I just assume that $t(a)$ is that number? Would I say that since $t(a)$ is unique, I can choose a single number to represent $t(a)$. I am unsure of how to finish this proof.
linear-algebra orthogonality projection
So this is a part of a larger question. The question starts as follows.
Let $v in mathbbR^n$ be a nonzero vector, and denote by $v^perp subset mathbbR^n$ the set of vectors $w in mathbbR^n$ such that $vâ w=0$
a) Show that $v^perp$ is a subspace of $mathbbR^n$
b) Given any vector $a in mathbbR^n$, show that $(a-fracaâ v^2v) in v^perp$
c) Define the projection of $a$ onto $v^perp$ by the formula $$P_v^perp(a)=(a-fracaâ v^2v). $$ Show that there is a unique number $t(a)$ such that $(a+t(a)v) in v^perp$. Show that $$a+t(a)v = P_v^perp(a)$$
Parts a and b were relatively straight forward because you just had to apply the definition of subspace and $v^perp$. However, I am confused on part c.
MY ATTEMPT AT PART C
Suppose that $a+t_1(a)v in v^perp$ and $a+t_2(a)v in v^perp$. Then applying the definition of $v^perp$, we have
$$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = 0 $$
$$vâ (a+t_2(a)v) = 0$$ Then $$vâ (a+t_1(a)v) = vâ (a+t_2(a)v)$$ $$vâ a+t_1(a)vâ v = vâ a+t_2(a)vâ v$$ Then, $$t_1(a)||v||^2=t_2(a)||v||^2$$ Thus, $$t_1(a)= t_2(a)$$ So here I have proved uniqueness. However, now I am unsure of how to prove that $$t(a) = -fracaâ v^2$$ which is essentially what the question is asking me to do. Do I just assume that $t(a)$ is that number? Would I say that since $t(a)$ is unique, I can choose a single number to represent $t(a)$. I am unsure of how to finish this proof.
linear-algebra orthogonality projection
linear-algebra orthogonality projection
asked Sep 10 at 21:06
user278039
373115
373115
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1 Answer
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If $a+ t_1 v , a+t_2 vin v^bot$ then since $v^bot$ is a subspace we have
$(t_1-t_2) v in v^bot$. Since $operatornamespv, v^bot$ are orthogonal
we must have $(t_1-t_2) v =0$ and so $t_1=t_2$.
To compute $t(a)$ we look for a $t$ such that $a+tv bot v$, or, equivalently
$langle a+tv, v rangle = 0$. Expanding gives
$langle a, v rangle + t |v|^2 = 0$ or $t = - ^2 $.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
If $a+ t_1 v , a+t_2 vin v^bot$ then since $v^bot$ is a subspace we have
$(t_1-t_2) v in v^bot$. Since $operatornamespv, v^bot$ are orthogonal
we must have $(t_1-t_2) v =0$ and so $t_1=t_2$.
To compute $t(a)$ we look for a $t$ such that $a+tv bot v$, or, equivalently
$langle a+tv, v rangle = 0$. Expanding gives
$langle a, v rangle + t |v|^2 = 0$ or $t = - ^2 $.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
If $a+ t_1 v , a+t_2 vin v^bot$ then since $v^bot$ is a subspace we have
$(t_1-t_2) v in v^bot$. Since $operatornamespv, v^bot$ are orthogonal
we must have $(t_1-t_2) v =0$ and so $t_1=t_2$.
To compute $t(a)$ we look for a $t$ such that $a+tv bot v$, or, equivalently
$langle a+tv, v rangle = 0$. Expanding gives
$langle a, v rangle + t |v|^2 = 0$ or $t = - ^2 $.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
If $a+ t_1 v , a+t_2 vin v^bot$ then since $v^bot$ is a subspace we have
$(t_1-t_2) v in v^bot$. Since $operatornamespv, v^bot$ are orthogonal
we must have $(t_1-t_2) v =0$ and so $t_1=t_2$.
To compute $t(a)$ we look for a $t$ such that $a+tv bot v$, or, equivalently
$langle a+tv, v rangle = 0$. Expanding gives
$langle a, v rangle + t |v|^2 = 0$ or $t = - ^2 $.
If $a+ t_1 v , a+t_2 vin v^bot$ then since $v^bot$ is a subspace we have
$(t_1-t_2) v in v^bot$. Since $operatornamespv, v^bot$ are orthogonal
we must have $(t_1-t_2) v =0$ and so $t_1=t_2$.
To compute $t(a)$ we look for a $t$ such that $a+tv bot v$, or, equivalently
$langle a+tv, v rangle = 0$. Expanding gives
$langle a, v rangle + t |v|^2 = 0$ or $t = - ^2 $.
answered Sep 10 at 21:24
copper.hat
124k558156
124k558156
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