Let $fcolonBbbR^2to BbbR$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq Vert x-yVert^2.$ Prove that $f$ is a constant

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Edit: Several questions of this type have been asked here before but not on the same domain $BbbR^2.$ Please, how do I deal with a function of this type or could anyone show me a reference or a similar question with the same domain?



Let $fcolonBbbR^2to BbbR$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq Vert x-yVert^2.$ Prove that $f$ is a constant.



What if we assume that $f$ is differentiable. Is there another way of showing that $f$ is a constant?







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  • 2




    First try showing that $f$ is differentiable!
    – Taisuke Yasuda
    Aug 16 at 1:22










  • @AstroSharp: Differentiability!
    – Mike
    Aug 16 at 2:10










  • actually, the differentiability follows. It is so obvious here, that it is challenging to formalize
    – AstroSharp
    Aug 16 at 4:55














up vote
3
down vote

favorite












Edit: Several questions of this type have been asked here before but not on the same domain $BbbR^2.$ Please, how do I deal with a function of this type or could anyone show me a reference or a similar question with the same domain?



Let $fcolonBbbR^2to BbbR$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq Vert x-yVert^2.$ Prove that $f$ is a constant.



What if we assume that $f$ is differentiable. Is there another way of showing that $f$ is a constant?







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    First try showing that $f$ is differentiable!
    – Taisuke Yasuda
    Aug 16 at 1:22










  • @AstroSharp: Differentiability!
    – Mike
    Aug 16 at 2:10










  • actually, the differentiability follows. It is so obvious here, that it is challenging to formalize
    – AstroSharp
    Aug 16 at 4:55












up vote
3
down vote

favorite









up vote
3
down vote

favorite











Edit: Several questions of this type have been asked here before but not on the same domain $BbbR^2.$ Please, how do I deal with a function of this type or could anyone show me a reference or a similar question with the same domain?



Let $fcolonBbbR^2to BbbR$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq Vert x-yVert^2.$ Prove that $f$ is a constant.



What if we assume that $f$ is differentiable. Is there another way of showing that $f$ is a constant?







share|cite|improve this question














Edit: Several questions of this type have been asked here before but not on the same domain $BbbR^2.$ Please, how do I deal with a function of this type or could anyone show me a reference or a similar question with the same domain?



Let $fcolonBbbR^2to BbbR$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|leq Vert x-yVert^2.$ Prove that $f$ is a constant.



What if we assume that $f$ is differentiable. Is there another way of showing that $f$ is a constant?









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 17 at 12:40









Martin Sleziak

43.5k6113260




43.5k6113260










asked Aug 16 at 1:18









Mike

75215




75215







  • 2




    First try showing that $f$ is differentiable!
    – Taisuke Yasuda
    Aug 16 at 1:22










  • @AstroSharp: Differentiability!
    – Mike
    Aug 16 at 2:10










  • actually, the differentiability follows. It is so obvious here, that it is challenging to formalize
    – AstroSharp
    Aug 16 at 4:55












  • 2




    First try showing that $f$ is differentiable!
    – Taisuke Yasuda
    Aug 16 at 1:22










  • @AstroSharp: Differentiability!
    – Mike
    Aug 16 at 2:10










  • actually, the differentiability follows. It is so obvious here, that it is challenging to formalize
    – AstroSharp
    Aug 16 at 4:55







2




2




First try showing that $f$ is differentiable!
– Taisuke Yasuda
Aug 16 at 1:22




First try showing that $f$ is differentiable!
– Taisuke Yasuda
Aug 16 at 1:22












@AstroSharp: Differentiability!
– Mike
Aug 16 at 2:10




@AstroSharp: Differentiability!
– Mike
Aug 16 at 2:10












actually, the differentiability follows. It is so obvious here, that it is challenging to formalize
– AstroSharp
Aug 16 at 4:55




actually, the differentiability follows. It is so obvious here, that it is challenging to formalize
– AstroSharp
Aug 16 at 4:55










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Here is a couple of definitions of differentiability for functions in $mathbbR^2$ which can easily be extended into $mathbbR^n$.



Definition 1: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ such that $$lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2=0$$



Definition 2: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and function $phi:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ such that $$f(x+h)-f(x)=c_1h_1+c_2h_2+phi(h)$$ and $$lim_hto0fracphi(h)=0$$



For both of these definitions $c_1$ and $c_2$ are constants with respect to $h$. i.e. if change $x$ constants and $phi$ are allowed to change.



So in order to establish differentiability we need to present or show existence of $c_1$, $c_2$, and functions $phi$ that would satisfy required properties.



If we choose definition 1. We claim that $c_1=c_2=0$ will satisfy the conditions:
$$left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2right|=left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)right|=$$ $$=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



Here we must mention that absolute value is a continuous function so if $lim|F|$ exists so must $|lim F|$ and they must be the same.



In order to verify definition 2 we must present both constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and functions $phi$ that satisfy the necessary condition. We claim that the constants can be chosen as $c_1=c_2=0$ and $$phi(h)=f(x+h)-f(x).$$ The first identiy is trivial since $phi$ was chosen this way. The limit identity follows from the condition provided by the theorem: $|f(y-x)|leq|y-x|^2$, set $y=x+h$:



$$left|lim_hto0fracphi(h)right|=lim_hto0frac=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



Here we must perform the standard calculus dance with existing limits: since the last limit in the chain exists and equals $0$ and all qualities are non-negative, the first limit in the chain within the absolute value exists as well and it is $0$ ("Two policemen" or "Sandwich" theorem)



As a conclusion, to establish something in math, we must present certain objects, or prove their existence by other means. In this case, we presented $c_1$, $c_2$, and $phi$ and verified that these objects satisfy all required conditions. Hence the functions is differentiable and $c_1=c_2=0$ are partial derivatives existing at any point $x$ and they are $0$: $$f'(x)=[0,0]Longrightarrowfracpartial f(x,y)partial x=fracpartial f(x,y)partial y=0Longrightarrow f(x,y)=textconst(x)=textconst(y)=textconst$$ Q.E.D.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    6
    down vote













    HINT:
    $$
    lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0|h|=0
    $$
    It means that the derivative is equal to 0 for all $xinmathbbR^2$. But, as the set is $mathbbR^2$, it means that $f$ is constant on every interval, connecting two points.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















    • Can you please, elaborate further?
      – Mike
      Aug 16 at 1:27










    • @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
      – Empty
      Aug 16 at 1:30










    • @Mike Is it enough now?
      – Przemysław Scherwentke
      Aug 16 at 1:31










    • @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
      – Nameless
      Aug 16 at 1:37










    • @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
      – Mike
      Aug 16 at 14:12

















    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Divide the line segment from $x$ to $y$ into $n$ segments of length $| x- y|/n$, with endpoints



    $$x = x_0 , x_1, ldots, x_n = y$$



    Apply the inequality to each pair $(x_i, x_i+1)$ and use the triangle inequality to get
    $$|f(x) - f(y)| leq n cdot frac^2n^2$$



    Now let $n to infty$ for fixed $x,y$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
















    • 1




      Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
      – Przemysław Scherwentke
      Aug 17 at 10:56

















    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Lemma. Suppose $k>0$ and $|f(x)-f(y)|leq k |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$ Then for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|leq frac k2|x-y|^2.$



    Proof: Let $z=frac x+y2.$ We have $|x-z|=|z-y|=frac 12|x-y|.$ So we have $$|f(x)-f(y)|leq |f(x)-f(z)|+|f(z)-f(y)|leq$$ $$leq k|x-z|^2+k|z-y|^2=frac k2|x-y|^2.$$



    Corollary. By induction on $nin Z^+,$ if $|f(x)-f(y)|leq |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ then $|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N,$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$



    Clearly we cannot have $0<|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






    share|cite|improve this answer






















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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Here is a couple of definitions of differentiability for functions in $mathbbR^2$ which can easily be extended into $mathbbR^n$.



      Definition 1: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ such that $$lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2=0$$



      Definition 2: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and function $phi:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ such that $$f(x+h)-f(x)=c_1h_1+c_2h_2+phi(h)$$ and $$lim_hto0fracphi(h)=0$$



      For both of these definitions $c_1$ and $c_2$ are constants with respect to $h$. i.e. if change $x$ constants and $phi$ are allowed to change.



      So in order to establish differentiability we need to present or show existence of $c_1$, $c_2$, and functions $phi$ that would satisfy required properties.



      If we choose definition 1. We claim that $c_1=c_2=0$ will satisfy the conditions:
      $$left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2right|=left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)right|=$$ $$=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



      Here we must mention that absolute value is a continuous function so if $lim|F|$ exists so must $|lim F|$ and they must be the same.



      In order to verify definition 2 we must present both constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and functions $phi$ that satisfy the necessary condition. We claim that the constants can be chosen as $c_1=c_2=0$ and $$phi(h)=f(x+h)-f(x).$$ The first identiy is trivial since $phi$ was chosen this way. The limit identity follows from the condition provided by the theorem: $|f(y-x)|leq|y-x|^2$, set $y=x+h$:



      $$left|lim_hto0fracphi(h)right|=lim_hto0frac=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



      Here we must perform the standard calculus dance with existing limits: since the last limit in the chain exists and equals $0$ and all qualities are non-negative, the first limit in the chain within the absolute value exists as well and it is $0$ ("Two policemen" or "Sandwich" theorem)



      As a conclusion, to establish something in math, we must present certain objects, or prove their existence by other means. In this case, we presented $c_1$, $c_2$, and $phi$ and verified that these objects satisfy all required conditions. Hence the functions is differentiable and $c_1=c_2=0$ are partial derivatives existing at any point $x$ and they are $0$: $$f'(x)=[0,0]Longrightarrowfracpartial f(x,y)partial x=fracpartial f(x,y)partial y=0Longrightarrow f(x,y)=textconst(x)=textconst(y)=textconst$$ Q.E.D.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        2
        down vote



        accepted










        Here is a couple of definitions of differentiability for functions in $mathbbR^2$ which can easily be extended into $mathbbR^n$.



        Definition 1: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ such that $$lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2=0$$



        Definition 2: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and function $phi:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ such that $$f(x+h)-f(x)=c_1h_1+c_2h_2+phi(h)$$ and $$lim_hto0fracphi(h)=0$$



        For both of these definitions $c_1$ and $c_2$ are constants with respect to $h$. i.e. if change $x$ constants and $phi$ are allowed to change.



        So in order to establish differentiability we need to present or show existence of $c_1$, $c_2$, and functions $phi$ that would satisfy required properties.



        If we choose definition 1. We claim that $c_1=c_2=0$ will satisfy the conditions:
        $$left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2right|=left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)right|=$$ $$=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



        Here we must mention that absolute value is a continuous function so if $lim|F|$ exists so must $|lim F|$ and they must be the same.



        In order to verify definition 2 we must present both constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and functions $phi$ that satisfy the necessary condition. We claim that the constants can be chosen as $c_1=c_2=0$ and $$phi(h)=f(x+h)-f(x).$$ The first identiy is trivial since $phi$ was chosen this way. The limit identity follows from the condition provided by the theorem: $|f(y-x)|leq|y-x|^2$, set $y=x+h$:



        $$left|lim_hto0fracphi(h)right|=lim_hto0frac=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



        Here we must perform the standard calculus dance with existing limits: since the last limit in the chain exists and equals $0$ and all qualities are non-negative, the first limit in the chain within the absolute value exists as well and it is $0$ ("Two policemen" or "Sandwich" theorem)



        As a conclusion, to establish something in math, we must present certain objects, or prove their existence by other means. In this case, we presented $c_1$, $c_2$, and $phi$ and verified that these objects satisfy all required conditions. Hence the functions is differentiable and $c_1=c_2=0$ are partial derivatives existing at any point $x$ and they are $0$: $$f'(x)=[0,0]Longrightarrowfracpartial f(x,y)partial x=fracpartial f(x,y)partial y=0Longrightarrow f(x,y)=textconst(x)=textconst(y)=textconst$$ Q.E.D.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Here is a couple of definitions of differentiability for functions in $mathbbR^2$ which can easily be extended into $mathbbR^n$.



          Definition 1: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ such that $$lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2=0$$



          Definition 2: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and function $phi:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ such that $$f(x+h)-f(x)=c_1h_1+c_2h_2+phi(h)$$ and $$lim_hto0fracphi(h)=0$$



          For both of these definitions $c_1$ and $c_2$ are constants with respect to $h$. i.e. if change $x$ constants and $phi$ are allowed to change.



          So in order to establish differentiability we need to present or show existence of $c_1$, $c_2$, and functions $phi$ that would satisfy required properties.



          If we choose definition 1. We claim that $c_1=c_2=0$ will satisfy the conditions:
          $$left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2right|=left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)right|=$$ $$=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



          Here we must mention that absolute value is a continuous function so if $lim|F|$ exists so must $|lim F|$ and they must be the same.



          In order to verify definition 2 we must present both constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and functions $phi$ that satisfy the necessary condition. We claim that the constants can be chosen as $c_1=c_2=0$ and $$phi(h)=f(x+h)-f(x).$$ The first identiy is trivial since $phi$ was chosen this way. The limit identity follows from the condition provided by the theorem: $|f(y-x)|leq|y-x|^2$, set $y=x+h$:



          $$left|lim_hto0fracphi(h)right|=lim_hto0frac=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



          Here we must perform the standard calculus dance with existing limits: since the last limit in the chain exists and equals $0$ and all qualities are non-negative, the first limit in the chain within the absolute value exists as well and it is $0$ ("Two policemen" or "Sandwich" theorem)



          As a conclusion, to establish something in math, we must present certain objects, or prove their existence by other means. In this case, we presented $c_1$, $c_2$, and $phi$ and verified that these objects satisfy all required conditions. Hence the functions is differentiable and $c_1=c_2=0$ are partial derivatives existing at any point $x$ and they are $0$: $$f'(x)=[0,0]Longrightarrowfracpartial f(x,y)partial x=fracpartial f(x,y)partial y=0Longrightarrow f(x,y)=textconst(x)=textconst(y)=textconst$$ Q.E.D.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Here is a couple of definitions of differentiability for functions in $mathbbR^2$ which can easily be extended into $mathbbR^n$.



          Definition 1: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ such that $$lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2=0$$



          Definition 2: Function $f:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ is differentiable at point $x$ if there are two constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and function $phi:mathbbR^2rightarrowmathbbR$ such that $$f(x+h)-f(x)=c_1h_1+c_2h_2+phi(h)$$ and $$lim_hto0fracphi(h)=0$$



          For both of these definitions $c_1$ and $c_2$ are constants with respect to $h$. i.e. if change $x$ constants and $phi$ are allowed to change.



          So in order to establish differentiability we need to present or show existence of $c_1$, $c_2$, and functions $phi$ that would satisfy required properties.



          If we choose definition 1. We claim that $c_1=c_2=0$ will satisfy the conditions:
          $$left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)-c_1h_1-c_2h_2right|=left|lim_hto0fracf(x+h)-f(x)right|=$$ $$=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



          Here we must mention that absolute value is a continuous function so if $lim|F|$ exists so must $|lim F|$ and they must be the same.



          In order to verify definition 2 we must present both constants $c_1$ and $c_2$ and functions $phi$ that satisfy the necessary condition. We claim that the constants can be chosen as $c_1=c_2=0$ and $$phi(h)=f(x+h)-f(x).$$ The first identiy is trivial since $phi$ was chosen this way. The limit identity follows from the condition provided by the theorem: $|f(y-x)|leq|y-x|^2$, set $y=x+h$:



          $$left|lim_hto0fracphi(h)right|=lim_hto0frac=lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0frach=0$$



          Here we must perform the standard calculus dance with existing limits: since the last limit in the chain exists and equals $0$ and all qualities are non-negative, the first limit in the chain within the absolute value exists as well and it is $0$ ("Two policemen" or "Sandwich" theorem)



          As a conclusion, to establish something in math, we must present certain objects, or prove their existence by other means. In this case, we presented $c_1$, $c_2$, and $phi$ and verified that these objects satisfy all required conditions. Hence the functions is differentiable and $c_1=c_2=0$ are partial derivatives existing at any point $x$ and they are $0$: $$f'(x)=[0,0]Longrightarrowfracpartial f(x,y)partial x=fracpartial f(x,y)partial y=0Longrightarrow f(x,y)=textconst(x)=textconst(y)=textconst$$ Q.E.D.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 16 at 4:54

























          answered Aug 16 at 4:48









          AstroSharp

          731310




          731310




















              up vote
              6
              down vote













              HINT:
              $$
              lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0|h|=0
              $$
              It means that the derivative is equal to 0 for all $xinmathbbR^2$. But, as the set is $mathbbR^2$, it means that $f$ is constant on every interval, connecting two points.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Can you please, elaborate further?
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 1:27










              • @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
                – Empty
                Aug 16 at 1:30










              • @Mike Is it enough now?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 16 at 1:31










              • @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
                – Nameless
                Aug 16 at 1:37










              • @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 14:12














              up vote
              6
              down vote













              HINT:
              $$
              lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0|h|=0
              $$
              It means that the derivative is equal to 0 for all $xinmathbbR^2$. But, as the set is $mathbbR^2$, it means that $f$ is constant on every interval, connecting two points.






              share|cite|improve this answer






















              • Can you please, elaborate further?
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 1:27










              • @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
                – Empty
                Aug 16 at 1:30










              • @Mike Is it enough now?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 16 at 1:31










              • @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
                – Nameless
                Aug 16 at 1:37










              • @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 14:12












              up vote
              6
              down vote










              up vote
              6
              down vote









              HINT:
              $$
              lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0|h|=0
              $$
              It means that the derivative is equal to 0 for all $xinmathbbR^2$. But, as the set is $mathbbR^2$, it means that $f$ is constant on every interval, connecting two points.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              HINT:
              $$
              lim_hto0fracleqlim_hto0|h|=0
              $$
              It means that the derivative is equal to 0 for all $xinmathbbR^2$. But, as the set is $mathbbR^2$, it means that $f$ is constant on every interval, connecting two points.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Aug 17 at 10:54

























              answered Aug 16 at 1:25









              Przemysław Scherwentke

              11.4k52651




              11.4k52651











              • Can you please, elaborate further?
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 1:27










              • @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
                – Empty
                Aug 16 at 1:30










              • @Mike Is it enough now?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 16 at 1:31










              • @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
                – Nameless
                Aug 16 at 1:37










              • @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 14:12
















              • Can you please, elaborate further?
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 1:27










              • @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
                – Empty
                Aug 16 at 1:30










              • @Mike Is it enough now?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 16 at 1:31










              • @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
                – Nameless
                Aug 16 at 1:37










              • @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
                – Mike
                Aug 16 at 14:12















              Can you please, elaborate further?
              – Mike
              Aug 16 at 1:27




              Can you please, elaborate further?
              – Mike
              Aug 16 at 1:27












              @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
              – Empty
              Aug 16 at 1:30




              @Mike Left hand side is derivative of $f$
              – Empty
              Aug 16 at 1:30












              @Mike Is it enough now?
              – Przemysław Scherwentke
              Aug 16 at 1:31




              @Mike Is it enough now?
              – Przemysław Scherwentke
              Aug 16 at 1:31












              @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
              – Nameless
              Aug 16 at 1:37




              @Mike, the squeeze theorem implies the derivative is $0$. A function whose "slope" that is $0$ everywhere must be a horizontal line.
              – Nameless
              Aug 16 at 1:37












              @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
              – Mike
              Aug 16 at 14:12




              @Przemysław Scherwentke: Yes, it is! Thanks a lot!
              – Mike
              Aug 16 at 14:12










              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Divide the line segment from $x$ to $y$ into $n$ segments of length $| x- y|/n$, with endpoints



              $$x = x_0 , x_1, ldots, x_n = y$$



              Apply the inequality to each pair $(x_i, x_i+1)$ and use the triangle inequality to get
              $$|f(x) - f(y)| leq n cdot frac^2n^2$$



              Now let $n to infty$ for fixed $x,y$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
















              • 1




                Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 17 at 10:56














              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Divide the line segment from $x$ to $y$ into $n$ segments of length $| x- y|/n$, with endpoints



              $$x = x_0 , x_1, ldots, x_n = y$$



              Apply the inequality to each pair $(x_i, x_i+1)$ and use the triangle inequality to get
              $$|f(x) - f(y)| leq n cdot frac^2n^2$$



              Now let $n to infty$ for fixed $x,y$.






              share|cite|improve this answer
















              • 1




                Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 17 at 10:56












              up vote
              3
              down vote










              up vote
              3
              down vote









              Divide the line segment from $x$ to $y$ into $n$ segments of length $| x- y|/n$, with endpoints



              $$x = x_0 , x_1, ldots, x_n = y$$



              Apply the inequality to each pair $(x_i, x_i+1)$ and use the triangle inequality to get
              $$|f(x) - f(y)| leq n cdot frac^2n^2$$



              Now let $n to infty$ for fixed $x,y$.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Divide the line segment from $x$ to $y$ into $n$ segments of length $| x- y|/n$, with endpoints



              $$x = x_0 , x_1, ldots, x_n = y$$



              Apply the inequality to each pair $(x_i, x_i+1)$ and use the triangle inequality to get
              $$|f(x) - f(y)| leq n cdot frac^2n^2$$



              Now let $n to infty$ for fixed $x,y$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Aug 16 at 9:23









              barto

              13.4k32581




              13.4k32581







              • 1




                Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 17 at 10:56












              • 1




                Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
                – Przemysław Scherwentke
                Aug 17 at 10:56







              1




              1




              Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
              – Przemysław Scherwentke
              Aug 17 at 10:56




              Why am I the first, who upvotes this very interesting solution?
              – Przemysław Scherwentke
              Aug 17 at 10:56










              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Lemma. Suppose $k>0$ and $|f(x)-f(y)|leq k |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$ Then for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|leq frac k2|x-y|^2.$



              Proof: Let $z=frac x+y2.$ We have $|x-z|=|z-y|=frac 12|x-y|.$ So we have $$|f(x)-f(y)|leq |f(x)-f(z)|+|f(z)-f(y)|leq$$ $$leq k|x-z|^2+k|z-y|^2=frac k2|x-y|^2.$$



              Corollary. By induction on $nin Z^+,$ if $|f(x)-f(y)|leq |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ then $|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N,$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$



              Clearly we cannot have $0<|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Lemma. Suppose $k>0$ and $|f(x)-f(y)|leq k |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$ Then for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|leq frac k2|x-y|^2.$



                Proof: Let $z=frac x+y2.$ We have $|x-z|=|z-y|=frac 12|x-y|.$ So we have $$|f(x)-f(y)|leq |f(x)-f(z)|+|f(z)-f(y)|leq$$ $$leq k|x-z|^2+k|z-y|^2=frac k2|x-y|^2.$$



                Corollary. By induction on $nin Z^+,$ if $|f(x)-f(y)|leq |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ then $|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N,$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$



                Clearly we cannot have $0<|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Lemma. Suppose $k>0$ and $|f(x)-f(y)|leq k |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$ Then for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|leq frac k2|x-y|^2.$



                  Proof: Let $z=frac x+y2.$ We have $|x-z|=|z-y|=frac 12|x-y|.$ So we have $$|f(x)-f(y)|leq |f(x)-f(z)|+|f(z)-f(y)|leq$$ $$leq k|x-z|^2+k|z-y|^2=frac k2|x-y|^2.$$



                  Corollary. By induction on $nin Z^+,$ if $|f(x)-f(y)|leq |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ then $|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N,$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$



                  Clearly we cannot have $0<|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Lemma. Suppose $k>0$ and $|f(x)-f(y)|leq k |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$ Then for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ we have $|f(x)-f(y)|leq frac k2|x-y|^2.$



                  Proof: Let $z=frac x+y2.$ We have $|x-z|=|z-y|=frac 12|x-y|.$ So we have $$|f(x)-f(y)|leq |f(x)-f(z)|+|f(z)-f(y)|leq$$ $$leq k|x-z|^2+k|z-y|^2=frac k2|x-y|^2.$$



                  Corollary. By induction on $nin Z^+,$ if $|f(x)-f(y)|leq |x-y|^2$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2$ then $|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N,$ for all $x,yin Bbb R^2.$



                  Clearly we cannot have $0<|f(x)-f(y)|leq 2^1-n|x-y|^2$ for all $nin Bbb N.$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 16 at 8:48

























                  answered Aug 16 at 8:43









                  DanielWainfleet

                  31.9k31644




                  31.9k31644






















                       

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