About the covariant derivative - is this correct?

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Let $S subset mathbbR^3$ be a regular surface, the image of a parametrization $X: U subset mathbbR^2 to S$ and $alpha:I to W subset S$ be a curve in $S$. We can write $alpha(t) = X(u(t), v(t))$, then the covariant derivative of $alpha'$ at some $t in I$ is given by:



$$beginalign
dfracsf Dalpha'rmdt &= rm proj_T_largealpha(t)S alpha''(t) \
&= alpha''(t) - langlealpha''(t), N(u(t), v(t)) rangle N(u(t), v(t))
endalign$$



Is this correct? If not, what am I getting wrong?







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    Yes it is correct.
    – John Ma
    Aug 10 at 14:07














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $S subset mathbbR^3$ be a regular surface, the image of a parametrization $X: U subset mathbbR^2 to S$ and $alpha:I to W subset S$ be a curve in $S$. We can write $alpha(t) = X(u(t), v(t))$, then the covariant derivative of $alpha'$ at some $t in I$ is given by:



$$beginalign
dfracsf Dalpha'rmdt &= rm proj_T_largealpha(t)S alpha''(t) \
&= alpha''(t) - langlealpha''(t), N(u(t), v(t)) rangle N(u(t), v(t))
endalign$$



Is this correct? If not, what am I getting wrong?







share|cite|improve this question
















  • 1




    Yes it is correct.
    – John Ma
    Aug 10 at 14:07












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $S subset mathbbR^3$ be a regular surface, the image of a parametrization $X: U subset mathbbR^2 to S$ and $alpha:I to W subset S$ be a curve in $S$. We can write $alpha(t) = X(u(t), v(t))$, then the covariant derivative of $alpha'$ at some $t in I$ is given by:



$$beginalign
dfracsf Dalpha'rmdt &= rm proj_T_largealpha(t)S alpha''(t) \
&= alpha''(t) - langlealpha''(t), N(u(t), v(t)) rangle N(u(t), v(t))
endalign$$



Is this correct? If not, what am I getting wrong?







share|cite|improve this question












Let $S subset mathbbR^3$ be a regular surface, the image of a parametrization $X: U subset mathbbR^2 to S$ and $alpha:I to W subset S$ be a curve in $S$. We can write $alpha(t) = X(u(t), v(t))$, then the covariant derivative of $alpha'$ at some $t in I$ is given by:



$$beginalign
dfracsf Dalpha'rmdt &= rm proj_T_largealpha(t)S alpha''(t) \
&= alpha''(t) - langlealpha''(t), N(u(t), v(t)) rangle N(u(t), v(t))
endalign$$



Is this correct? If not, what am I getting wrong?









share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Aug 9 at 16:12









Matheus Andrade

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  • 1




    Yes it is correct.
    – John Ma
    Aug 10 at 14:07












  • 1




    Yes it is correct.
    – John Ma
    Aug 10 at 14:07







1




1




Yes it is correct.
– John Ma
Aug 10 at 14:07




Yes it is correct.
– John Ma
Aug 10 at 14:07










1 Answer
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The expression I wrote is correct.






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    1 Answer
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    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    The expression I wrote is correct.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      0
      down vote



      accepted










      The expression I wrote is correct.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted






        The expression I wrote is correct.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The expression I wrote is correct.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Aug 15 at 16:43









        Matheus Andrade

        626214




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