Obtaining the norm of the derivative (of $mathbbR to mathbbR^3$ function) from a limit

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Let $mathbfv:mathbbR to mathbbR^n$ be a real vector valued function. I tried to prove that the following equality holds (sometimes I found it helpful when working with physics): $$leftlVert fracdmathbfvdt rightrVert = lim_Delta t to 0fracleftlVert Delta mathbfv rightrVertDelta t$$
Evaluating the limit gives something like:
$$lim_Delta t to 0fracsqrt Delta mathbfv_x^2 + Delta mathbfv_y^2 + Delta mathbfv_z^2 Delta t$$ but from there I've not been able to proced.







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    Let $mathbfv:mathbbR to mathbbR^n$ be a real vector valued function. I tried to prove that the following equality holds (sometimes I found it helpful when working with physics): $$leftlVert fracdmathbfvdt rightrVert = lim_Delta t to 0fracleftlVert Delta mathbfv rightrVertDelta t$$
    Evaluating the limit gives something like:
    $$lim_Delta t to 0fracsqrt Delta mathbfv_x^2 + Delta mathbfv_y^2 + Delta mathbfv_z^2 Delta t$$ but from there I've not been able to proced.







    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
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      favorite











      Let $mathbfv:mathbbR to mathbbR^n$ be a real vector valued function. I tried to prove that the following equality holds (sometimes I found it helpful when working with physics): $$leftlVert fracdmathbfvdt rightrVert = lim_Delta t to 0fracleftlVert Delta mathbfv rightrVertDelta t$$
      Evaluating the limit gives something like:
      $$lim_Delta t to 0fracsqrt Delta mathbfv_x^2 + Delta mathbfv_y^2 + Delta mathbfv_z^2 Delta t$$ but from there I've not been able to proced.







      share|cite|improve this question














      Let $mathbfv:mathbbR to mathbbR^n$ be a real vector valued function. I tried to prove that the following equality holds (sometimes I found it helpful when working with physics): $$leftlVert fracdmathbfvdt rightrVert = lim_Delta t to 0fracleftlVert Delta mathbfv rightrVertDelta t$$
      Evaluating the limit gives something like:
      $$lim_Delta t to 0fracsqrt Delta mathbfv_x^2 + Delta mathbfv_y^2 + Delta mathbfv_z^2 Delta t$$ but from there I've not been able to proced.









      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 9 at 21:35

























      asked Aug 7 at 16:12









      marco21

      10518




      10518




















          1 Answer
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          This just isn't true. Consider $$f(t) = beginpmatrix cos t \sin t endpmatrix$$



          Observe that $|f|=1$ for all $t$, so $fracddt|f| = 0$, but
          $$f'(t) = beginpmatrix-sin t \ cos tendpmatrix,$$
          which still has norm 1.



          For physical intuition, consider a car traveling in a circle around the origin with constant speed. Then the distance of the car from the origin doesn't change, so the derivative of the norm is 0, but the velocity has constant positive magnitude (since the magnitude of the velocity is by definition speed).






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
            – marco21
            Aug 8 at 15:59










          • @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:14







          • 1




            In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:16











          • Thank you! I didn't notice it.
            – marco21
            Aug 9 at 21:31











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          This just isn't true. Consider $$f(t) = beginpmatrix cos t \sin t endpmatrix$$



          Observe that $|f|=1$ for all $t$, so $fracddt|f| = 0$, but
          $$f'(t) = beginpmatrix-sin t \ cos tendpmatrix,$$
          which still has norm 1.



          For physical intuition, consider a car traveling in a circle around the origin with constant speed. Then the distance of the car from the origin doesn't change, so the derivative of the norm is 0, but the velocity has constant positive magnitude (since the magnitude of the velocity is by definition speed).






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
            – marco21
            Aug 8 at 15:59










          • @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:14







          • 1




            In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:16











          • Thank you! I didn't notice it.
            – marco21
            Aug 9 at 21:31















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          This just isn't true. Consider $$f(t) = beginpmatrix cos t \sin t endpmatrix$$



          Observe that $|f|=1$ for all $t$, so $fracddt|f| = 0$, but
          $$f'(t) = beginpmatrix-sin t \ cos tendpmatrix,$$
          which still has norm 1.



          For physical intuition, consider a car traveling in a circle around the origin with constant speed. Then the distance of the car from the origin doesn't change, so the derivative of the norm is 0, but the velocity has constant positive magnitude (since the magnitude of the velocity is by definition speed).






          share|cite|improve this answer




















          • But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
            – marco21
            Aug 8 at 15:59










          • @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:14







          • 1




            In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:16











          • Thank you! I didn't notice it.
            – marco21
            Aug 9 at 21:31













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          This just isn't true. Consider $$f(t) = beginpmatrix cos t \sin t endpmatrix$$



          Observe that $|f|=1$ for all $t$, so $fracddt|f| = 0$, but
          $$f'(t) = beginpmatrix-sin t \ cos tendpmatrix,$$
          which still has norm 1.



          For physical intuition, consider a car traveling in a circle around the origin with constant speed. Then the distance of the car from the origin doesn't change, so the derivative of the norm is 0, but the velocity has constant positive magnitude (since the magnitude of the velocity is by definition speed).






          share|cite|improve this answer












          This just isn't true. Consider $$f(t) = beginpmatrix cos t \sin t endpmatrix$$



          Observe that $|f|=1$ for all $t$, so $fracddt|f| = 0$, but
          $$f'(t) = beginpmatrix-sin t \ cos tendpmatrix,$$
          which still has norm 1.



          For physical intuition, consider a car traveling in a circle around the origin with constant speed. Then the distance of the car from the origin doesn't change, so the derivative of the norm is 0, but the velocity has constant positive magnitude (since the magnitude of the velocity is by definition speed).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Aug 7 at 16:32









          jgon

          8,54611435




          8,54611435











          • But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
            – marco21
            Aug 8 at 15:59










          • @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:14







          • 1




            In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:16











          • Thank you! I didn't notice it.
            – marco21
            Aug 9 at 21:31

















          • But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
            – marco21
            Aug 8 at 15:59










          • @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:14







          • 1




            In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
            – jgon
            Aug 8 at 16:16











          • Thank you! I didn't notice it.
            – marco21
            Aug 9 at 21:31
















          But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
          – marco21
          Aug 8 at 15:59




          But $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbf v rVertDelta t neq fracddtlVert Delta mathbf v rVert$. The thing that I have tried to prove was if $lim_Delta t to 0fraclVert Delta mathbfv rVertDelta t = leftlVert lim_Delta t to 0fracDelta mathbfvDelta t rightrVert$ holds (maybe assuming $lVert v rVert$ is constant)
          – marco21
          Aug 8 at 15:59












          @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
          – jgon
          Aug 8 at 16:14





          @marco oh yeah duh, I sorta took the question in the title as the actual question rather than properly reading the whole thing apparently. I'll edit this later or delete it if I don't have an answer
          – jgon
          Aug 8 at 16:14





          1




          1




          In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
          – jgon
          Aug 8 at 16:16





          In that case, this follows from the norm being continuous (I'll edit an explanation later)
          – jgon
          Aug 8 at 16:16













          Thank you! I didn't notice it.
          – marco21
          Aug 9 at 21:31





          Thank you! I didn't notice it.
          – marco21
          Aug 9 at 21:31













           

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