Constructing Lorenz-like curves
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In economics, the Lorenz curve measures economic inequality in countries. The probability density function given by wikipedia is:
The further the Lorenz curve is from the line of equality the more inequality there exists. For a project I'm looking to construct a function family or parametric function family
that resembles the Lorenz distribution, in the unit square, $ Bbb R^2 (0,1) times(0,1), $ with a variable and a smoothly varying parameter that is symmetric about the line $y=x$ and $ y=1-x $, such that the function smoothly transitions from itself to its inverse as the parameter is varied and as it crosses the line $y=x$. The family $ f_n(x)= x^n $ almost works but it is not symmetric about the line $y=1-x$. Also I'm not sure if the Lorenz curve admits an inverse but if it did that would help me a lot and would probably go a long way in answering my question.
Thanks.
calculus
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
In economics, the Lorenz curve measures economic inequality in countries. The probability density function given by wikipedia is:
The further the Lorenz curve is from the line of equality the more inequality there exists. For a project I'm looking to construct a function family or parametric function family
that resembles the Lorenz distribution, in the unit square, $ Bbb R^2 (0,1) times(0,1), $ with a variable and a smoothly varying parameter that is symmetric about the line $y=x$ and $ y=1-x $, such that the function smoothly transitions from itself to its inverse as the parameter is varied and as it crosses the line $y=x$. The family $ f_n(x)= x^n $ almost works but it is not symmetric about the line $y=1-x$. Also I'm not sure if the Lorenz curve admits an inverse but if it did that would help me a lot and would probably go a long way in answering my question.
Thanks.
calculus
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
In economics, the Lorenz curve measures economic inequality in countries. The probability density function given by wikipedia is:
The further the Lorenz curve is from the line of equality the more inequality there exists. For a project I'm looking to construct a function family or parametric function family
that resembles the Lorenz distribution, in the unit square, $ Bbb R^2 (0,1) times(0,1), $ with a variable and a smoothly varying parameter that is symmetric about the line $y=x$ and $ y=1-x $, such that the function smoothly transitions from itself to its inverse as the parameter is varied and as it crosses the line $y=x$. The family $ f_n(x)= x^n $ almost works but it is not symmetric about the line $y=1-x$. Also I'm not sure if the Lorenz curve admits an inverse but if it did that would help me a lot and would probably go a long way in answering my question.
Thanks.
calculus
In economics, the Lorenz curve measures economic inequality in countries. The probability density function given by wikipedia is:
The further the Lorenz curve is from the line of equality the more inequality there exists. For a project I'm looking to construct a function family or parametric function family
that resembles the Lorenz distribution, in the unit square, $ Bbb R^2 (0,1) times(0,1), $ with a variable and a smoothly varying parameter that is symmetric about the line $y=x$ and $ y=1-x $, such that the function smoothly transitions from itself to its inverse as the parameter is varied and as it crosses the line $y=x$. The family $ f_n(x)= x^n $ almost works but it is not symmetric about the line $y=1-x$. Also I'm not sure if the Lorenz curve admits an inverse but if it did that would help me a lot and would probably go a long way in answering my question.
Thanks.
calculus
asked Aug 9 at 18:46
George Thomas
76417
76417
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1 Answer
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This system of symmetric superellipse equations works well:
$ x^s+y^s=1 $
$ (1-x)^s+(1-y)^s=1 $
$s in Bbb R (1,infty). $
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
This system of symmetric superellipse equations works well:
$ x^s+y^s=1 $
$ (1-x)^s+(1-y)^s=1 $
$s in Bbb R (1,infty). $
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
This system of symmetric superellipse equations works well:
$ x^s+y^s=1 $
$ (1-x)^s+(1-y)^s=1 $
$s in Bbb R (1,infty). $
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
This system of symmetric superellipse equations works well:
$ x^s+y^s=1 $
$ (1-x)^s+(1-y)^s=1 $
$s in Bbb R (1,infty). $
This system of symmetric superellipse equations works well:
$ x^s+y^s=1 $
$ (1-x)^s+(1-y)^s=1 $
$s in Bbb R (1,infty). $
edited Aug 16 at 12:03
answered Aug 9 at 19:37
George Thomas
76417
76417
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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