Prove that $int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$ $forall xin (0,1)$
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I am trying to prove that
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$
What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.
Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........
I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....
Is there any good way to prove this?
Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....
integration improper-integrals
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I am trying to prove that
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$
What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.
Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........
I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....
Is there any good way to prove this?
Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....
integration improper-integrals
1
You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
â joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53
1
@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
â Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58
1
BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
â Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I am trying to prove that
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$
What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.
Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........
I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....
Is there any good way to prove this?
Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....
integration improper-integrals
I am trying to prove that
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <infty$$ $forall xin (0,1)$
What I have tried is using taylor series of $$exp(x)=sum_n=0^inftyfracx^nn^!$$.
Since $exp(-xt^2)geq 1-xt^2$,
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2)t^2=int_(0,infty)xdt=infty$$.........
I thought my approximation was too rough. So I also tried...
$$int_(0,infty)frac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2dt <int_(0,infty)frac1-(1-xt^2+fracx^2t^42-fracx^3t^66)t^2=infty$$.....
Is there any good way to prove this?
Even Wolfram alpha cannot calculate any of this integral.. so I have really no idea.....
integration improper-integrals
edited Aug 9 at 20:57
asked Aug 9 at 20:46
Lev Ban
50516
50516
1
You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
â joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53
1
@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
â Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58
1
BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
â Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10
add a comment |Â
1
You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
â joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53
1
@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
â Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58
1
BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
â Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10
1
1
You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
â joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53
You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
â joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53
1
1
@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
â Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58
@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
â Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58
1
1
BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
â Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10
BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
â Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10
add a comment |Â
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:
beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
\
&le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
endalign*
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$
On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
$$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Use
$$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
then
$$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
We have that
$$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$
and since as $xto infty$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$
the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$
also the first integral converges.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
$$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
$$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
$$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.
This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.
add a comment |Â
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:
beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
\
&le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
endalign*
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:
beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
\
&le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
endalign*
add a comment |Â
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:
beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
\
&le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
endalign*
Hint: Break up the integral into two pieces, and bound each piece seperately:
beginalign*int_0^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt &= int_0^1dfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1-exp(-xt^2)t^2,dt
\
&le int_0^1dfracxt^2t^2,dt + int_1^inftydfrac1t^2,dt
endalign*
answered Aug 9 at 20:53
JimmyK4542
39.5k245105
39.5k245105
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$
On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
$$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$
On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
$$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$
On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
$$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.
It's additionally true for $x geq 0$. To show this, split the region up into $(0,1)$ and $[1, infty)$. On $(0,1)$ the integrand is continuous save for a removable singularity at 0, at which its value is $x$. Additionally, it is decreasing in this range and non-negative, so $$int_0^1 frac1 - e^- xt^2t^2 , dt < x.$$
On $[1, infty)$, the integrand is less than $frac1t^2$, and
$$int_1^infty frac1t^2 = 1,$$
giving that your integral is less than $x + 1$ and so clearly finite.
answered Aug 9 at 20:55
B. Mehta
11.7k21944
11.7k21944
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Use
$$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
then
$$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Use
$$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
then
$$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Use
$$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
then
$$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$
Use
$$int_0^x e^-ut^2 du=dfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2$$
then
$$int_0^inftydfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2 dt=int_0^xint_0^infty e^-ut^2 dt du<infty$$
edited Aug 9 at 21:07
answered Aug 9 at 20:55
Nosrati
20.2k41644
20.2k41644
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
This answer gives the precise value of the integral.
â Nosrati
Aug 9 at 21:23
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
We have that
$$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$
and since as $xto infty$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$
the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$
also the first integral converges.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
We have that
$$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$
and since as $xto infty$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$
the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$
also the first integral converges.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
We have that
$$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$
and since as $xto infty$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$
the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$
also the first integral converges.
We have that
$$int_0^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt=int_0^1frac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt+int_1^inftyfrac1-e^-xt^2t^2dt $$
and since as $xto infty$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 sim frac1t^2$$
the second integral converges, and since as $x to 0^+$
$$frac1-e^-xt^2t^2 =xfrace^-xt^2-1-xt^2to x$$
also the first integral converges.
answered Aug 9 at 20:58
gimusi
65.9k73684
65.9k73684
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
$$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
$$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
$$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.
This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
$$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
$$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
$$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.
This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
$$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
$$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
$$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.
This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.
You could have computed the antiderivative using integration by parts
$$I=intfrac1-e^-xt^2 t^2,dt$$
$$u=1-e^-xt^2 implies du=2x t , e^-t^2 x,dt$$
$$dv=fracdtt^2implies v=-frac1t$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2 xint e^-xt^2,dt$$ For the second integral, let $$xt^2=y^2 implies t=fracysqrtximplies dt=fracdysqrtx$$ making
$$I=-frac1-e^-t^2 xt+2sqrt xint e^-y^2,dy$$ Now, for the integration between $0$ and $infty$, the first term is $0$ if $x >0$ and the remaining integral is quite well known.
This is less elegant than @user 108128's answer but it works.
answered Aug 10 at 5:03
Claude Leibovici
112k1055126
112k1055126
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2877676%2fprove-that-int-0-infty-frac1-exp-xt2t2dt-infty-forall-x-in%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
1
You can get displayed equations by surrounding them with double instead of single dollar signs. That makes them a lot easier to read, especially when you have things like nested fractions.
â joriki
Aug 9 at 20:53
1
@joriki Thanks! That is helpful!
â Lev Ban
Aug 9 at 20:58
1
BTW the value is $sqrtpi x$.
â Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 21:10