What is a nice example for non-deformable sets in a topological space?
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Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.
I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?
What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?
algebraic-geometry algebraic-topology homotopy-theory
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Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.
I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?
What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?
algebraic-geometry algebraic-topology homotopy-theory
Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
â Max
Aug 9 at 17:45
X is mathbbR with usual topology.
â user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58
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up vote
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Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.
I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?
What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?
algebraic-geometry algebraic-topology homotopy-theory
Let $M$ be a separable topological space. A set $X subset M$ is said to be deformable in $M$ into $Y subset M$ if there is a continuous mapping $f_0$ from $X$ to $Y$ which is homotopic in $M$ to identity map of $X$ in $M$.
I am not able to think of any non-examples of deformable sets. Is $(0,1)$ deformable into 2 element set $0,1$ ?
What are some nice real world examples of non-deformable sets and deformable sets ? Are there any non-deformable subsets of $mathbbR$ ?
algebraic-geometry algebraic-topology homotopy-theory
edited Aug 11 at 4:51
asked Aug 9 at 16:49
user579315
234
234
Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
â Max
Aug 9 at 17:45
X is mathbbR with usual topology.
â user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58
add a comment |Â
Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
â Max
Aug 9 at 17:45
X is mathbbR with usual topology.
â user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58
Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
â Max
Aug 9 at 17:45
Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
â Max
Aug 9 at 17:45
X is mathbbR with usual topology.
â user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58
X is mathbbR with usual topology.
â user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58
add a comment |Â
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Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
$$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
$$
A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.
On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.
What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.
Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
$$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
$$
A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.
On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.
What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.
Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
$$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
$$
A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.
On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.
What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.
Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
$$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
$$
A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.
On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.
What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.
Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.
Any subset $X subset mathbb R$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset mathbb R$, because you can take any $y in Y$ and then define the homotopy $h : X times [0,1] to mathbb R$ by
$$h(x,t) = (1-t)x + t y
$$
A similar idea shows that for any contractible space $M$, any subset $X subset M$ is deformable into any nonempty subset $Y subset M$.
On the other hand, consider $M = mathbbR - 0 = (-infty,0) cup (0,infty)$, let $X subset M$, and suppose that $X$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$. In this situation $X$ is not deformable into $1$, and more generally $X$ is deformable into $Y subset mathbb R$ if and only if $Y$ contains a point of $(-infty,0)$ and a point of $(0,infty)$.
What I'm doing with these two examples is I am employing the homotopy invariants of algebraic topology to give me examples and counterexamples. So far, I've only used the set of path components, also known as $pi_0$.
Here is a $pi_1$ example. If $M = mathbb R^2 - 0$ and $X = S^1 subset M$, then $X$ is not deformable into any one point subset $Y subset M$, because if it were then the inclusion induced isomorphism $mathbb Z approx pi_1(S^1) approx pi_1(M) approx mathbb Z$ would factor through $pi_1(Y)=0$, which is clearly impossible.
answered Aug 11 at 18:27
Lee Mosher
45.7k33578
45.7k33578
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Deformability depends on the ambient space so you must ask "Is $(0,1)$ deformable into $0,1$ in $X$ ?", where $X$ is some space that you find relevant
â Max
Aug 9 at 17:45
X is mathbbR with usual topology.
â user579315
Aug 9 at 20:58