Putnam and Beyond: Problem 87 (Matrices and algebra)

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Below is the problem as stated in Putnam and Beyond:




Let $A$ and $B$ be tw0 $ntimes n$ matrices that commute and such that for some positive integers $p$ and $q$, $A^p=I_n$ and $B^q=O_n$. Prove that $A+B$ is invertible, and find its inverse.




In the following I will give my "solution" and I would be very grateful if you could either verify that it is correct or else tell me where I've gone wrong. I would also greatly appreciate any comments on my proof writing.



We start of by making the assumption $p>q$. Note that in order for this argument to be correct, $p$ and $q$ may need to be interchanged. It follows that $A^p+B^p=I_n$. The expression on the left can be factored as $(A+B)(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)= I_n$. From this we see clearly that $A+B$ is invertible, its inverse being $(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)$. My argument is concluded.



Thank you!







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  • looks fine to me. You can probably do a little more and say why you can assume $p>q$ in the first place.
    – dezdichado
    Aug 9 at 18:29










  • @RobertIsrael OK, so how about using A^p-(-B)^p =(A+B)(A^p-1 .... + B^p-1). I don't see the need of introducing k, can you explain?
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:41










  • Actually what you want is $A^kp + (-1)^kp B^kp = I_n$ where $kp > q$. BTW your factoring is wrong.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:42










  • The point is that in the case $p < q$, $B^p$ isn't $O$, while $A^q$ isn't $I$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:44










  • @RobertIsrael In the case $p<q$ isn't simply interchanging p and q in my argument sufficient. That is instead of considering $A^p + B^p$, we consider $A^q+ B^q$. ( That is what I meant by:" Note that in order for this argument to be correct, p and q may need to be interchanged")
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:46















up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1












Below is the problem as stated in Putnam and Beyond:




Let $A$ and $B$ be tw0 $ntimes n$ matrices that commute and such that for some positive integers $p$ and $q$, $A^p=I_n$ and $B^q=O_n$. Prove that $A+B$ is invertible, and find its inverse.




In the following I will give my "solution" and I would be very grateful if you could either verify that it is correct or else tell me where I've gone wrong. I would also greatly appreciate any comments on my proof writing.



We start of by making the assumption $p>q$. Note that in order for this argument to be correct, $p$ and $q$ may need to be interchanged. It follows that $A^p+B^p=I_n$. The expression on the left can be factored as $(A+B)(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)= I_n$. From this we see clearly that $A+B$ is invertible, its inverse being $(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)$. My argument is concluded.



Thank you!







share|cite|improve this question






















  • looks fine to me. You can probably do a little more and say why you can assume $p>q$ in the first place.
    – dezdichado
    Aug 9 at 18:29










  • @RobertIsrael OK, so how about using A^p-(-B)^p =(A+B)(A^p-1 .... + B^p-1). I don't see the need of introducing k, can you explain?
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:41










  • Actually what you want is $A^kp + (-1)^kp B^kp = I_n$ where $kp > q$. BTW your factoring is wrong.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:42










  • The point is that in the case $p < q$, $B^p$ isn't $O$, while $A^q$ isn't $I$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:44










  • @RobertIsrael In the case $p<q$ isn't simply interchanging p and q in my argument sufficient. That is instead of considering $A^p + B^p$, we consider $A^q+ B^q$. ( That is what I meant by:" Note that in order for this argument to be correct, p and q may need to be interchanged")
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:46













up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1






1





Below is the problem as stated in Putnam and Beyond:




Let $A$ and $B$ be tw0 $ntimes n$ matrices that commute and such that for some positive integers $p$ and $q$, $A^p=I_n$ and $B^q=O_n$. Prove that $A+B$ is invertible, and find its inverse.




In the following I will give my "solution" and I would be very grateful if you could either verify that it is correct or else tell me where I've gone wrong. I would also greatly appreciate any comments on my proof writing.



We start of by making the assumption $p>q$. Note that in order for this argument to be correct, $p$ and $q$ may need to be interchanged. It follows that $A^p+B^p=I_n$. The expression on the left can be factored as $(A+B)(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)= I_n$. From this we see clearly that $A+B$ is invertible, its inverse being $(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)$. My argument is concluded.



Thank you!







share|cite|improve this question














Below is the problem as stated in Putnam and Beyond:




Let $A$ and $B$ be tw0 $ntimes n$ matrices that commute and such that for some positive integers $p$ and $q$, $A^p=I_n$ and $B^q=O_n$. Prove that $A+B$ is invertible, and find its inverse.




In the following I will give my "solution" and I would be very grateful if you could either verify that it is correct or else tell me where I've gone wrong. I would also greatly appreciate any comments on my proof writing.



We start of by making the assumption $p>q$. Note that in order for this argument to be correct, $p$ and $q$ may need to be interchanged. It follows that $A^p+B^p=I_n$. The expression on the left can be factored as $(A+B)(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)= I_n$. From this we see clearly that $A+B$ is invertible, its inverse being $(A^p-1+BA^p-2+...+B^p-1)$. My argument is concluded.



Thank you!









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edited Aug 9 at 18:27

























asked Aug 9 at 18:22









wittbluenote

958




958











  • looks fine to me. You can probably do a little more and say why you can assume $p>q$ in the first place.
    – dezdichado
    Aug 9 at 18:29










  • @RobertIsrael OK, so how about using A^p-(-B)^p =(A+B)(A^p-1 .... + B^p-1). I don't see the need of introducing k, can you explain?
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:41










  • Actually what you want is $A^kp + (-1)^kp B^kp = I_n$ where $kp > q$. BTW your factoring is wrong.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:42










  • The point is that in the case $p < q$, $B^p$ isn't $O$, while $A^q$ isn't $I$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:44










  • @RobertIsrael In the case $p<q$ isn't simply interchanging p and q in my argument sufficient. That is instead of considering $A^p + B^p$, we consider $A^q+ B^q$. ( That is what I meant by:" Note that in order for this argument to be correct, p and q may need to be interchanged")
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:46

















  • looks fine to me. You can probably do a little more and say why you can assume $p>q$ in the first place.
    – dezdichado
    Aug 9 at 18:29










  • @RobertIsrael OK, so how about using A^p-(-B)^p =(A+B)(A^p-1 .... + B^p-1). I don't see the need of introducing k, can you explain?
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:41










  • Actually what you want is $A^kp + (-1)^kp B^kp = I_n$ where $kp > q$. BTW your factoring is wrong.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:42










  • The point is that in the case $p < q$, $B^p$ isn't $O$, while $A^q$ isn't $I$.
    – Robert Israel
    Aug 9 at 18:44










  • @RobertIsrael In the case $p<q$ isn't simply interchanging p and q in my argument sufficient. That is instead of considering $A^p + B^p$, we consider $A^q+ B^q$. ( That is what I meant by:" Note that in order for this argument to be correct, p and q may need to be interchanged")
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 18:46
















looks fine to me. You can probably do a little more and say why you can assume $p>q$ in the first place.
– dezdichado
Aug 9 at 18:29




looks fine to me. You can probably do a little more and say why you can assume $p>q$ in the first place.
– dezdichado
Aug 9 at 18:29












@RobertIsrael OK, so how about using A^p-(-B)^p =(A+B)(A^p-1 .... + B^p-1). I don't see the need of introducing k, can you explain?
– wittbluenote
Aug 9 at 18:41




@RobertIsrael OK, so how about using A^p-(-B)^p =(A+B)(A^p-1 .... + B^p-1). I don't see the need of introducing k, can you explain?
– wittbluenote
Aug 9 at 18:41












Actually what you want is $A^kp + (-1)^kp B^kp = I_n$ where $kp > q$. BTW your factoring is wrong.
– Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 18:42




Actually what you want is $A^kp + (-1)^kp B^kp = I_n$ where $kp > q$. BTW your factoring is wrong.
– Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 18:42












The point is that in the case $p < q$, $B^p$ isn't $O$, while $A^q$ isn't $I$.
– Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 18:44




The point is that in the case $p < q$, $B^p$ isn't $O$, while $A^q$ isn't $I$.
– Robert Israel
Aug 9 at 18:44












@RobertIsrael In the case $p<q$ isn't simply interchanging p and q in my argument sufficient. That is instead of considering $A^p + B^p$, we consider $A^q+ B^q$. ( That is what I meant by:" Note that in order for this argument to be correct, p and q may need to be interchanged")
– wittbluenote
Aug 9 at 18:46





@RobertIsrael In the case $p<q$ isn't simply interchanging p and q in my argument sufficient. That is instead of considering $A^p + B^p$, we consider $A^q+ B^q$. ( That is what I meant by:" Note that in order for this argument to be correct, p and q may need to be interchanged")
– wittbluenote
Aug 9 at 18:46











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Your argument is right when $pge q$ because $$B^q=0to B^p=0 text and (-B)^p=0$$also we know that $A^p-(-B)^p$ is divisible by $A-(-B)=A+B$ so your conclusion is right in this case. Now let $p<q$. Also since all the eigenvalues of $A^p$ are $1$ so all the eigenvalues of $A$ are roots of $1$ and non-zero and $A$ is invertible which means that$$A^q=A^q-p$$therefore $$A^q-p=A^q-(-B)^q=(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)$$therefore $$(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1=I$$or $$(A+B)^-1=left((A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1right)^-1=A^q-p(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)^-1$$






share|cite|improve this answer




















  • Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 19:00










  • You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 9 at 19:03










  • In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 19:05










  • You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 9 at 19:14

















up vote
1
down vote













Here is marginally different way, note that $A+B = A(I+ A^-1 B)$. Since $A,B$ commute, so do $A^-1, B$ and so $(A^-1B)^k = A^-kB^k$, and so, with $C= -A^-1B$, we have $C^q = 0$.



Since all of $C$'s eigenvalues are $0$, we see that $I-C$ is invertible and it is easy to check that $(I-C)(I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) = I$.



Hence $(A+B)^-1 = (I-C)^-1 A^-1 = (I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) A^-1$.



Since $A^p = I$, we have $A^-k = A^p-k$ and so
$(A+B)^-1 = sum_k=0^q-1 (-B)^k A^p-k$.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    Your argument is right when $pge q$ because $$B^q=0to B^p=0 text and (-B)^p=0$$also we know that $A^p-(-B)^p$ is divisible by $A-(-B)=A+B$ so your conclusion is right in this case. Now let $p<q$. Also since all the eigenvalues of $A^p$ are $1$ so all the eigenvalues of $A$ are roots of $1$ and non-zero and $A$ is invertible which means that$$A^q=A^q-p$$therefore $$A^q-p=A^q-(-B)^q=(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)$$therefore $$(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1=I$$or $$(A+B)^-1=left((A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1right)^-1=A^q-p(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)^-1$$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:00










    • You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:03










    • In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:05










    • You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:14














    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    Your argument is right when $pge q$ because $$B^q=0to B^p=0 text and (-B)^p=0$$also we know that $A^p-(-B)^p$ is divisible by $A-(-B)=A+B$ so your conclusion is right in this case. Now let $p<q$. Also since all the eigenvalues of $A^p$ are $1$ so all the eigenvalues of $A$ are roots of $1$ and non-zero and $A$ is invertible which means that$$A^q=A^q-p$$therefore $$A^q-p=A^q-(-B)^q=(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)$$therefore $$(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1=I$$or $$(A+B)^-1=left((A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1right)^-1=A^q-p(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)^-1$$






    share|cite|improve this answer




















    • Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:00










    • You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:03










    • In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:05










    • You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:14












    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted






    Your argument is right when $pge q$ because $$B^q=0to B^p=0 text and (-B)^p=0$$also we know that $A^p-(-B)^p$ is divisible by $A-(-B)=A+B$ so your conclusion is right in this case. Now let $p<q$. Also since all the eigenvalues of $A^p$ are $1$ so all the eigenvalues of $A$ are roots of $1$ and non-zero and $A$ is invertible which means that$$A^q=A^q-p$$therefore $$A^q-p=A^q-(-B)^q=(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)$$therefore $$(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1=I$$or $$(A+B)^-1=left((A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1right)^-1=A^q-p(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)^-1$$






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Your argument is right when $pge q$ because $$B^q=0to B^p=0 text and (-B)^p=0$$also we know that $A^p-(-B)^p$ is divisible by $A-(-B)=A+B$ so your conclusion is right in this case. Now let $p<q$. Also since all the eigenvalues of $A^p$ are $1$ so all the eigenvalues of $A$ are roots of $1$ and non-zero and $A$ is invertible which means that$$A^q=A^q-p$$therefore $$A^q-p=A^q-(-B)^q=(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)$$therefore $$(A+B)(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1=I$$or $$(A+B)^-1=left((A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)(A^q-p)^-1right)^-1=A^q-p(A^q-1-cdots pm B^q-1)^-1$$







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Aug 9 at 18:38









    Mostafa Ayaz

    9,1033730




    9,1033730











    • Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:00










    • You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:03










    • In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:05










    • You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:14
















    • Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:00










    • You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:03










    • In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
      – wittbluenote
      Aug 9 at 19:05










    • You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
      – Mostafa Ayaz
      Aug 9 at 19:14















    Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 19:00




    Thank you! I think I understand the idea behind your answer, but I don't see why in the case $q>p$ considering $A^q+B^q$ and applying the same argument as in my post is insufficient.
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 19:00












    You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 9 at 19:03




    You're welcome! Do you mean that $A^q+B^q=I$ still holds?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 9 at 19:03












    In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 19:05




    In the case $q>p$, yes, I would say $A^q+ B^q= I_n$ holds.
    – wittbluenote
    Aug 9 at 19:05












    You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 9 at 19:14




    You're right. Then this becomes an alternative to ur argument.
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Aug 9 at 19:14










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Here is marginally different way, note that $A+B = A(I+ A^-1 B)$. Since $A,B$ commute, so do $A^-1, B$ and so $(A^-1B)^k = A^-kB^k$, and so, with $C= -A^-1B$, we have $C^q = 0$.



    Since all of $C$'s eigenvalues are $0$, we see that $I-C$ is invertible and it is easy to check that $(I-C)(I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) = I$.



    Hence $(A+B)^-1 = (I-C)^-1 A^-1 = (I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) A^-1$.



    Since $A^p = I$, we have $A^-k = A^p-k$ and so
    $(A+B)^-1 = sum_k=0^q-1 (-B)^k A^p-k$.






    share|cite|improve this answer
























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Here is marginally different way, note that $A+B = A(I+ A^-1 B)$. Since $A,B$ commute, so do $A^-1, B$ and so $(A^-1B)^k = A^-kB^k$, and so, with $C= -A^-1B$, we have $C^q = 0$.



      Since all of $C$'s eigenvalues are $0$, we see that $I-C$ is invertible and it is easy to check that $(I-C)(I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) = I$.



      Hence $(A+B)^-1 = (I-C)^-1 A^-1 = (I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) A^-1$.



      Since $A^p = I$, we have $A^-k = A^p-k$ and so
      $(A+B)^-1 = sum_k=0^q-1 (-B)^k A^p-k$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






















        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Here is marginally different way, note that $A+B = A(I+ A^-1 B)$. Since $A,B$ commute, so do $A^-1, B$ and so $(A^-1B)^k = A^-kB^k$, and so, with $C= -A^-1B$, we have $C^q = 0$.



        Since all of $C$'s eigenvalues are $0$, we see that $I-C$ is invertible and it is easy to check that $(I-C)(I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) = I$.



        Hence $(A+B)^-1 = (I-C)^-1 A^-1 = (I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) A^-1$.



        Since $A^p = I$, we have $A^-k = A^p-k$ and so
        $(A+B)^-1 = sum_k=0^q-1 (-B)^k A^p-k$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Here is marginally different way, note that $A+B = A(I+ A^-1 B)$. Since $A,B$ commute, so do $A^-1, B$ and so $(A^-1B)^k = A^-kB^k$, and so, with $C= -A^-1B$, we have $C^q = 0$.



        Since all of $C$'s eigenvalues are $0$, we see that $I-C$ is invertible and it is easy to check that $(I-C)(I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) = I$.



        Hence $(A+B)^-1 = (I-C)^-1 A^-1 = (I+C+C^2+cdots+C^q-1) A^-1$.



        Since $A^p = I$, we have $A^-k = A^p-k$ and so
        $(A+B)^-1 = sum_k=0^q-1 (-B)^k A^p-k$.







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        answered Aug 9 at 22:48









        copper.hat

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